Nursing Elites

1. A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension was recently changed to a new antihypertensive drug. He reports feeling dizzy at times. How would the nurse evaluate his blood pressure?

• A. Blood pressure and pulse should be recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
• B. The patient should be directed to walk around the room and his blood pressure assessed after this activity.
• C. Blood pressure and pulse are assessed at the beginning and at the end of the examination.
• D. Blood pressure is taken on the right arm and then 5 minutes later on the left arm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic vital signs should be taken when the person is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive medications, when the person reports fainting or syncope, or when volume depletion is suspected. The blood pressure and pulse readings are recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.

2. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

3. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

4. For a patient who is blood type AB, which blood product can they receive?

• A. Plasma from a type B donor
• B. Whole blood from a type A donor
• C. Packed RBCs from a type O donor
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with blood type AB has AB antigens on their red blood cells. This means they can only receive blood products that are compatible with these antigens. Choice A is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive plasma from a type B donor due to the antibodies present in type B plasma. Choice B is incorrect because an AB patient cannot receive whole blood from a type A donor as it contains incompatible antigens. Choice C is the correct answer because an AB patient can receive packed RBCs from a type O donor. Type O donors have no A or B antigens, making their blood compatible for transfusion to recipients with any blood type. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, and the correct choice is C.

5. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

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