Nursing Elites

1. A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension was recently changed to a new antihypertensive drug. He reports feeling dizzy at times. How would the nurse evaluate his blood pressure?

• A. Blood pressure and pulse should be recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
• B. The patient should be directed to walk around the room and his blood pressure assessed after this activity.
• C. Blood pressure and pulse are assessed at the beginning and at the end of the examination.
• D. Blood pressure is taken on the right arm and then 5 minutes later on the left arm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic vital signs should be taken when the person is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive medications, when the person reports fainting or syncope, or when volume depletion is suspected. The blood pressure and pulse readings are recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.

2. A client is being assisted to lie in the Sims' position. In what position does the nurse arrange the client?

• A. The client lies on his side with the upper leg flexed
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his abdomen with a pillow supporting his head
• D. The client is sitting up at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Sims' position is a side-lying position used for examinations or comfort. In the Sims' position, the client lies on their side with the upper leg flexed. The abdomen is slightly downward, and the lower arm is positioned behind the body. A pillow can be used to support the leg. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a position with the client lying on their back with the head lower than the feet. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a prone position, not the Sims' position. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a sitting position, not the Sims' position.

3. Which of the following actions can help prevent a fire in the area where a healthcare professional works?

• A. Using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment
• B. Marking equipment that is not working properly and using it carefully until it can be inspected by maintenance
• C. Notifying visitors or posting signs that indicate oxygen is in use in certain areas
• D. Keeping extra equipment stored in one area with other supplies and materials

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to help prevent a fire in a healthcare setting is to notify visitors or post signs indicating that oxygen is in use in certain areas. Oxygen is a combustible material, and awareness of its presence is crucial to prevent fire hazards. By informing all individuals in the facility about the use of oxygen through clear signs or notifications, the risk of improper use and potential fire accidents can be minimized. Choice A is incorrect because using an adaptor when plugging in client equipment is not directly related to fire prevention. Choice B is also incorrect as marking faulty equipment and using it until inspection does not directly address fire prevention. Choice D is not a recommended action for fire prevention; storing extra equipment with supplies does not address the specific fire risk associated with oxygen use.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. A client's intake and output are being calculated by a nurse. During the last shift, the client consumed � cup of gelatin, a skinless chicken breast, 1 cup of green beans, and 300 cc of water. The client also urinated 250 cc and had 2 bowel movements. What is this client's intake and output for this shift?

• A. 420 cc intake, 250 cc output
• B. 300 cc intake, 250 cc output
• C. 550 cc intake, 550 cc output
• D. 300 cc intake, 550 cc output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 420 cc intake and 250 cc output for this shift. To calculate the intake, � cup of gelatin (approximately 120 cc) and 300 cc of water should be added together, resulting in 420 cc. Food intake like the chicken breast and green beans is not converted to cc's but may be documented for hospital protocol. Output includes urine (250 cc in this case) and other forms like vomit, diarrhea, or gastric suction. Bowel movements are not converted to cc's, but the nurse may need to document the number of stools passed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the intake and output calculations based on the information provided.

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