Nursing Elites

1. The laboratory has just called with the arterial blood gas (ABG) results on four patients. Which result is most important for the nurse to report immediately to the health care provider?

• A. pH 7.34, PaO2 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, and O2 sat 97%
• B. pH 7.35, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg, and O2 sat 95%
• C. pH 7.46, PaO2 90 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg, and O2 sat 98%
• D. pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: pH 7.31, PaO2 91 mm Hg, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, and O2 sat 96%. These ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a critical condition that requires immediate attention. In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to a decrease in pH. The other options present normal or near-normal ABG values, indicating adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Therefore, these values would not be as urgent to report compared to the patient with respiratory acidosis in option D.

2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

3. The healthcare provider calculates the IV flow rate for a patient receiving lactated Ringer's solution. The patient needs to receive 2000mL of Lactated Ringer's over 36 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter. How many drops per minute should the healthcare provider set the IV to deliver?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute, we use the formula Drops Per Minute = (Milliliters x Drop Factor) / Time in Minutes. In this case, Drops Per Minute = (2000mL x 15 drops/mL) / (36 hours x 60 minutes/hour) = 30000 / 2160 = 13.89 (approximately 14). Therefore, the correct answer is 14 drops per minute. Choice A (8), Choice B (10), and Choice D (18) are incorrect as they do not correctly calculate the drops per minute based on the given information.

4. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

• A. Weight gain of 5 pounds
• B. Edema of the ankles
• C. Gastric irritability
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

5. What drives respiration in a patient with advanced chronic respiratory failure?

• A. Hypoxemia
• B. Hypocapnia
• C. Hypercapnia
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure, such as those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the respiratory drive shifts from being primarily stimulated by high levels of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) to being driven by low oxygen levels (hypoxemia). This shift is due to the body's adaptation to chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia. As a result, hypoxemia becomes the primary stimulus for respiration in these patients. Hypocapnia, a low level of carbon dioxide, is not a common driver of respiration in patients with advanced chronic respiratory failure. Therefore, the correct answer is hypoxemia.

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