Nursing Elites

1. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury.
• B. Place pressure on her brachial artery.
• C. Place pressure on her radial nerve.
• D. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate first aid procedure for a patient bleeding profusely from an injury near the wrist is to place pressure on her brachial artery. Applying pressure to the brachial pulse point will help slow down the bleeding. Placing a tourniquet on her arm above the injury is not recommended as it could potentially inhibit blood flow, leading to tissue necrosis. Pressing on the radial nerve or covering the bleeding area with wet towels are not effective in controlling bleeding and may not address the underlying cause.

2. A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon?

• A. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor.
• B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm.
• C. The patient is more than likely taking their temperature incorrectly.
• D. The patient is experiencing changes related to fluctuating daily hormones.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically lower than those taken throughout the rest of the day. Choice A is incorrect because a single elevated temperature reading in the evening does not definitively indicate a fever. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication of incorrect temperature measurement. Choice D is incorrect as the temperature changes are not related to monthly hormones but rather to the body's natural daily rhythm.

3. Your patient who had AIDS/HIV has just died. Should you still use standard precautions as you provide post-mortem care?

• A. Yes, because the virus is still transmissible
• B. Yes, because respect must still be maintained
• C. No, because the virus is no longer transmissible
• D. No, because it is disrespectful

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Yes, you should still use standard precautions even after an HIV/AIDS patient has died. The virus can remain infectious after death, and healthcare workers need to protect themselves from potential exposure. Choice B is incorrect because while respect is important, the primary reason for using standard precautions is to prevent transmission of infectious diseases. Choice C is incorrect as the virus can still be transmissible even after the patient's death. Choice D is incorrect as using standard precautions is a matter of infection control, not a question of respect.

4. A client has died approximately one hour ago. The nurse notes that the client's temperature has decreased in the last hour since their death. Which of the following processes explains this phenomenon?

• A. Rigor mortis
• B. Postmortem decomposition
• C. Algor mortis
• D. Livor mortis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Algor mortis occurs after death when the body's circulation stops, and the client's temperature begins to fall. The client's temperature will drop by approximately 1.8 degrees per hour until it reaches room temperature. During algor mortis, the client's skin gradually loses its elasticity. Rigor mortis refers to the stiffening of the body after death due to chemical changes in the muscles. Postmortem decomposition is the breakdown of tissues after death. Livor mortis is the pooling of blood in the dependent parts of the body, causing a purple-red discoloration.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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