NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. Which patient is at risk for developing oral candidiasis, a type of stomatitis?
- A. A 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic
- B. A 35-year-old man who has had HIV for 6 years
- C. A 40-year-old man who is undergoing chemotherapy
- D. An 80-year-old woman with dentures
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a 77-year-old woman in a long-term care facility taking an antibiotic. This patient has multiple risk factors for developing oral candidiasis, including older age, being in a long-term care facility, and taking antibiotics. Candidiasis can be caused by long-term antibiotic therapy, immunosuppressive therapy (such as chemotherapy), older age, living in a long-term care facility, diabetes, having dentures, and poor oral hygiene. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for oral candidiasis compared to the correct answer.
2. An 85-year-old male has been losing mobility and gaining weight over the last two months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?
- A. CBC (complete blood count)
- B. ECG (electrocardiogram)
- C. Thyroid function tests
- D. CT scan
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms of weight gain and poor temperature tolerance in an elderly male suggest a potential thyroid dysfunction. Thyroid function tests are crucial in differentiating between hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and a euthyroid state. These tests involve measuring the serum levels of thyroid hormones T3 and T4, also known as thyroxine, to evaluate thyroid function accurately. A complete blood count (Choice A) would not directly address the symptoms presented. An electrocardiogram (Choice B) assesses heart activity and would not be the primary test for these symptoms. A CT scan (Choice D) provides detailed images of internal organs and structures, which would not be the initial investigation for the described symptoms.
3. A patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia complains of a sharp pain of 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) whenever taking a deep breath. Which action will the nurse take next?
- A. Auscultate breath sounds.
- B. Administer PRN morphine.
- C. Have the patient cough forcefully.
- D. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's complaint of sharp pain when taking a deep breath is concerning for pleurisy or pleural effusion. The nurse should auscultate breath sounds to assess for a pleural friction rub or decreased breath sounds, which could indicate these conditions. It is crucial to gather assessment data before initiating any pain medications. Asking the patient to cough forcefully may exacerbate the pain and should be avoided until further assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be based on the assessment findings; therefore, it is premature to notify the provider without conducting a thorough assessment first.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?
- A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
- B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
- C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
- D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.
5. The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
- A. Fluid restriction to 1000cc per day
- B. Ambulate in the hallway 4 times a day
- C. Administer analgesic therapy as ordered
- D. Encourage increased caloric intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.
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