Nursing Elites

1. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

2. What technique would the nurse use to accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult?

• A. Use a lubricated blunt tip thermometer.
• B. Insert the thermometer 2 to 3 inches into the rectum.
• C. Leave the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes if the patient is febrile.
• D. Wait 2 to 3 minutes if the patient has recently smoked a cigarette.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult, a nurse should use a lubricated rectal thermometer with a short, blunt tip. The thermometer is inserted only 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) into the rectum and left in place for 2 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the thermometer 2 to 3 inches would be too deep and inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes is unnecessary and can cause discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as smoking a cigarette does not impact rectal temperatures.

3. You see a patient lying on the floor of the bathroom. You are NOT assigned to this patient. What is the first thing that you should do?

• A. Get the nurse who is caring for the patient.
• B. Tell the nurse that the patient has had another seizure.
• C. Observe the patient for any injuries and call out for help.
• D. Nothing. This patient is not one of your assignments.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct course of action in this situation is to observe the patient for any injuries and call out for help. It is crucial to act immediately in an emergency, regardless of whether the patient is under your care. Checking for injuries and seeking assistance can help ensure the patient receives prompt and appropriate care. Choosing to inform the nurse of a seizure without evidence or taking no action because the patient is not your assignment are not optimal responses. In a healthcare setting, patient safety and well-being should always be the top priority.

4. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Marfan syndrome
• C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
• D. Achondroplastic dwarfism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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