Nursing Elites

1. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?

• A. Whenever needed
• B. At bedtime
• C. During the night
• D. During the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.

2. Mrs. D is a pregnant client who is 33 weeks' gestation and is admitted for bright red vaginal bleeding. Her physician suspects placenta previa. All of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for this client except:

• A. Institute complete bed rest for the client
• B. Assess uterine tone to determine condition
• C. Perform a vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
• D. Measure and record blood loss each shift

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A client with placenta previa has part of the placenta covering some or all of the cervical opening. Performing a vaginal exam for placenta previa may cause significant bleeding and should be avoided unless directed by a physician, and preparations are made for emergency delivery. **Choice A** is correct as complete bed rest is essential to decrease the risk of further bleeding. **Choice B** is appropriate as assessing uterine tone helps in determining the condition of the uterus and can provide important information for the healthcare team. **Choice D** is also a necessary intervention as monitoring and recording blood loss is crucial in assessing the client's condition and response to treatment.

3. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?

• A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
• B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
• C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
• D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.

4. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Marfan syndrome
• C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
• D. Achondroplastic dwarfism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.

5. What is the most effective step in hand washing?

• A. Using friction to remove potential pathogens.
• B. Using hospital-grade soap.
• C. Moisturizing the hands after washing to prevent cracking.
• D. Washing hands with soap for at least 15 seconds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective step in hand washing is using friction to remove potential pathogens. While using soap, moisturizing hands, and washing for a sufficient duration are important aspects of hand hygiene, the mechanical action of rubbing hands together with friction is crucial in dislodging and removing dirt, debris, and potential pathogens. Hospital-grade soap may be beneficial, but the physical act of friction is key to effective hand washing. Moisturizing after washing is important for skin health but not the most effective step in the hand washing process. Simply washing hands for a specific duration, such as 15 seconds, without proper friction may not effectively remove contaminants. Therefore, using friction for thorough cleaning is the most crucial step in hand washing.

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