Nursing Elites

1. A nursing care plan states, 'Assist the patient to the bedside commode PRN.' When will this patient get this assistance to the commode?

• A. Whenever needed
• B. At bedtime
• C. During the night
• D. During the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Whenever needed.' The abbreviation 'PRN' stands for 'pro re nata,' which translates to 'as needed' or 'whenever necessary.' This means that the patient will receive assistance to the commode whenever they require it, based on their individual needs and condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because 'PRN' does not specify a specific time like bedtime, during the night, or during the day; instead, it indicates assistance based on the patient's needs.

2. The functional health pattern assessment data states: 'Eats three meals a day and is of normal weight for height.' The nurse should draw which of the following conclusions about this data? Select all that apply.

• A. Client has an actual health problem
• B. Client has a wellness diagnosis
• C. Collaborative health problem needs to be written
• D. Possible nursing diagnosis exists

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The assessment data provided indicates a healthy pattern of nutrition and a normal weight for height, suggesting a positive health status. This aligns with a wellness diagnosis, such as 'Potential for enhanced nutrition,' which focuses on improving health further. An actual health problem refers to a current health issue present in the client, which is not evident in this data. Collaborative health problems involve interprofessional collaboration and are not indicated based on the information provided. While a diet assessment may be needed to evaluate food quality, the initial data suggests a wellness-focused approach to care.

3. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

4. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Client will be able to turn self by day 3
• B. Skin will remain intact and without redness during hospital stay
• C. Client will state pain relieved within 30 minutes after medication
• D. Pressure will be prevented by repositioning client every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.

5. According to the American Heart Association standards, high-quality CPR for an adult includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Push hard
• B. Push fast
• C. Allow chest recoil between compressions
• D. Pause CPR as each drug is administered

Correct answer: D

Rationale: High-quality CPR for adults should not be paused for drug administration. The correct CPR technique involves pushing hard and fast, at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute and to a depth of at least 2 inches. It is also essential to allow chest recoil between compressions to enable proper blood circulation. Pausing CPR for drug administration would delay the delivery of continuous chest compressions, which are crucial for maintaining blood flow and oxygenation during cardiac arrest.

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