Nursing Elites

1. A client is discharged following hospitalization for congestive heart failure. The nurse teaching the family suggests they encourage the client to rest frequently in which of the following positions?

• A. High Fowler's
• B. Supine
• C. Left lateral
• D. Low Fowler's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is "High Fowler's" position. Sitting in a chair or resting in a bed in a high Fowler's position decreases the cardiac workload and facilitates breathing. This position helps reduce the work of breathing and promotes optimal lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Supine position (choice B) is lying flat on the back and may not be ideal for clients with congestive heart failure as it can increase pressure on the heart. Left lateral position (choice C) is commonly used for promoting circulation in clients with certain conditions but is not the most appropriate for congestive heart failure. Low Fowler's position (choice D) is not recommended as it does not provide the same benefits in terms of reducing cardiac workload and easing breathing as the high Fowler's position.

2. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• C. Biot's respirations
• D. Cluster breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mr. N is exhibiting Kussmaul respirations, characterized by rapid, deep, and regular breathing. This type of respiratory pattern is commonly seen in metabolic acidosis, such as in diabetic ketoacidosis. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation, leading to the elimination of carbon dioxide from the body. Choice B, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, is characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea and is not typically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, Biot's respirations, involve irregular breathing patterns with periods of apnea and are not reflective of the described breathing pattern. Cluster breathing, as mentioned in Choice D, is not a recognized term in respiratory patterns and does not describe the breathing pattern observed in Mr. N.

3. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

4. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?

• A. Altered tissue perfusion
• B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
• C. High risk for hemorrhage
• D. Risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When membranes are ruptured for over 24 hours before delivery, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Factors such as increased local cytokines, an imbalance in enzyme activity, and increased intrauterine pressure contribute to this risk. 'Altered tissue perfusion' is not the priority in this scenario as there is no indication of compromised blood flow. 'Risk for fluid volume deficit' is not the priority as there are no signs of excessive fluid loss. 'High risk for hemorrhage' is not the priority as the question does not suggest active bleeding as an immediate concern.

5. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?

• A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
• B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
• C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
• D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.

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