Nursing Elites

1. A nurse walks into a client's room to find the nursing assistant yelling, 'Sit back down or I won't help you eat, and then you will starve!' This type of behavior is known as:

• A. Psychological abuse
• B. Abandonment
• C. Material exploitation
• D. Physical abuse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psychological abuse. This behavior is classified as psychological abuse, which harms another person through words or threats. The nursing assistant's actions of yelling, making threats, and using food as a form of control fall under psychological abuse. Abandonment (choice B) refers to deserting or leaving a client without care, which is not the case in the scenario. Material exploitation (choice C) involves taking advantage of a person's assets or resources for personal gain, which is not evident here. Physical abuse (choice D) involves causing physical harm, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Therefore, the most appropriate classification for the behavior described in the scenario is psychological abuse.

2. Mrs. O is seen for follow-up after an episode of acute pancreatitis. Her physician orders a serum amylase level and the result is 200 U/L. Which of the following is a potential cause of this result?

• A. The client is pregnant
• B. The client has hypertension
• C. The client is in renal failure
• D. The client has pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum amylase level after pancreatitis may indicate another attack of the condition. It is common to order serum amylase as part of routine follow-up after pancreatitis. Elevated levels can also be seen in related gastrointestinal conditions like cholecystitis or an intestinal blockage. Therefore, in this case, the most likely cause of the elevated serum amylase level is a recurrence or ongoing pancreatitis. The other options, including pregnancy, hypertension, and renal failure, are not typically associated with an elevated serum amylase level in the context of follow-up after acute pancreatitis.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?

• A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
• B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
• C. This disease is highly contagious.
• D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.

4. Mr. K is admitted to the orthopedic unit one morning in preparation for a total knee replacement to start in two hours. Which of the following is a priority topic to instruct this client on admission?

• A. The approximate length of the surgery
• B. The type of anticoagulants that will be prescribed
• C. The time of the next meal of solid food
• D. The length of time until the client can return to work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority topic to instruct a client admitted for a total knee replacement surgery should be the approximate length of the surgery. Pre-surgical teaching should focus on preparing the client for the upcoming procedure. Providing information about the duration of the surgery can help manage the client's expectations, reduce anxiety, and ensure they are mentally prepared for the operation. While details about post-operative care, anticoagulants, meals, and return to work are important, they are not the immediate priority during the preoperative phase. These aspects can be addressed at a later stage in the client's care journey.

5. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

• A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
• D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

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