Nursing Elites

1. What is the highest priority for post ECT care?

• A. Observe for confusion
• B. Monitor respiratory status
• C. Reorient to time, place, and person
• D. Document the client's response to the treatment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority for post ECT care is to monitor respiratory status. This is crucial because a life-threatening side effect of ECT is respiratory arrest. While observing for confusion and reorienting the client are important aspects of post ECT care, they are not as critical as ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable. Documenting the client's response to treatment is also important for maintaining accurate medical records, but it is not the highest priority immediately post ECT.

2. A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?

• A. Manipulation
• B. Facilitation
• C. Co-optation
• D. Coercion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'

3. The client with multiple sclerosis is being educated by the nurse on exercises and physical activities. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. "I can lift weights and engage in resistance training."?
• B. "I should exercise until I am exhausted."?
• C. "I can incorporate aerobic exercises into my routine."?
• D. "I should perform proper stretching before starting my routine."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, "I should exercise until I am exhausted."? This statement indicates a need for further teaching because patients with multiple sclerosis should avoid exercising to the point of exhaustion or fatigue. Strenuous physical activity can increase body temperature and potentially worsen symptoms in individuals with multiple sclerosis. Choice A is correct because lifting weights and resistance training can be appropriate exercises for patients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is valid because aerobic exercises can also be beneficial. Choice D is accurate as proper stretching before starting an exercise routine is essential for preventing injuries.

4. Elderly patients are more prone to dehydration than younger people because the elderly ___________.

• A. drink more coffee and tea
• B. have more stomach mucus production
• C. have more saliva
• D. have less sense of thirst

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elderly patients are prone to dehydration because they have a lower and diminished sense of thirst. This reduced sensation of thirst makes them less likely to drink an adequate amount of fluids, leading to dehydration. While it is true that elderly individuals may also have changes such as decreased stomach mucus production and saliva production, these factors do not directly contribute to dehydration. Drinking more coffee and tea, as mentioned in choice A, is not a consistent behavior among all elderly individuals and is not a primary reason for their increased risk of dehydration.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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