NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
2. A client asks a nurse, 'Do you think I should move back home after this procedure?' and the nurse responds by saying, 'Do you think you should move back home?' What type of therapeutic communication is the nurse representing?
- A. Observation
- B. Reflection
- C. Summarizing
- D. Validating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is demonstrating the therapeutic communication technique of reflection. In this scenario, the nurse is redirecting the question back to the client, encouraging them to explore their thoughts and feelings about the situation. Reflection involves restating a statement or question in a way that prompts the client to consider their own answers, fostering self-awareness and insight. Observation involves stating facts, summarizing involves condensing information, and validating involves confirming the client's feelings or experiences, none of which are demonstrated in this interaction.
3. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
- B. Give the client Cogentin
- C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
- D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.
4. The nurse teaches a patient about the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective?
- A. I will avoid being outdoors whenever possible.
- B. My husband will be sleeping in the guest bedroom.
- C. I will take the bus instead of driving to visit my friends.
- D. I will keep the windows closed at home to contain the germs.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent the transmission of pulmonary tuberculosis, it is important for the infected individual to minimize exposure to close contacts and household members. Sleeping alone in a separate room, like the guest bedroom, is an effective measure. The other choices are not ideal: Choice A is incorrect because spending time outdoors is encouraged for ventilation; Choice C is incorrect as using public transportation increases the risk of transmission; Choice D is incorrect because keeping windows closed limits ventilation, which is necessary to reduce the concentration of infectious particles in the air.
5. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
- A. Infants: High bilirubin
- B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
- C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
- D. The Elderly: Malaria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
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