Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. The best way to achieve this goal is to ________________.

• A. ban the use of all restraints under all circumstances
• B. limit restraints to only those situations when falls cannot be prevented
• C. keep all bedside rails up for all patients during nighttime hours
• D. use non-skid socks and sheets to prevent falls from chairs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: All hospitals and nursing homes are mandated by JCAHO and state departments of health to have the goal of a restraint-free environment. This does not mean that no restraints can ever be used under any circumstances. The goal is to minimize the use of restraints and prioritize other preventive measures. Restraining a patient should only be considered when all other preventive strategies have failed, and the patient is at risk of harm. Therefore, the best approach is to limit the use of restraints to situations where falls cannot be prevented, ensuring that restraints are used as a last resort to maintain patient safety. Choices C and D are not ideal solutions as they do not address the appropriate use of restraints in a restraint-free environment.

3. All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:

• A. All tasks to be delegated or supervised are within the nurse's scope of practice
• B. The necessary tasks require repeated assessments
• C. The nurse has adequate time to develop staff assignments
• D. Policies have been developed that govern nursing practice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.

4. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

• A. A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching
• B. A mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out
• C. A side rail to prevent the patient from falling
• D. A soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

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