Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?

• A. Rhabdomyolysis
• B. Digitalis toxicity
• C. Glomerulonephritis
• D. All answers are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.

3. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?

• A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
• B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
• C. This disease is highly contagious.
• D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.

4. Which of the following conditions may cause an increased respiratory rate?

• A. Stooped posture
• B. Narcotic analgesics
• C. Injury to the brain stem
• D. Anemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anemia can lead to an increased respiratory rate. In anemia, there are decreased levels of hemoglobin in red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues. To compensate for the reduced oxygen-carrying capacity, the body increases the respiratory rate to bring in more oxygen. Stooped posture (Choice A) is not directly related to an increased respiratory rate. Narcotic analgesics (Choice B) are more likely to cause a decreased respiratory rate due to their central nervous system depressant effects. Injury to the brain stem (Choice C) can affect respiratory function but may not necessarily lead to an increased respiratory rate.

5. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?

• A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
• B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
• C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
• D. The nurse discusses the client's health history

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.

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