Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. A client on lithium has diarrhea and vomiting. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Recognize this as a drug interaction
• B. Give the client Cogentin
• C. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of lithium therapy
• D. Hold the next dose and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diarrhea and vomiting are manifestations of lithium toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to hold the next dose of lithium and obtain an order for a stat serum lithium level to confirm toxicity. This ensures patient safety and prevents further harm. Recognizing it as a drug interaction is not the first step in this scenario. Cogentin is used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with antipsychotics, not lithium toxicity. Reassuring the client about these symptoms as common side effects of lithium therapy is inappropriate as they indicate a more serious issue than typical side effects like hand tremors, nausea, polyuria, and polydipsia.

3. Gio told his nurse that the FBI is monitoring and recording his every movement and that microphones have been placed in the unit walls. Which action would be the most therapeutic response?

• A. Confront the delusional material directly by telling Gio that this simply is not so.
• B. Tell Gio that this must seem frightening to him but that you believe he is safe here.
• C. Tell Gio to wait and talk about these beliefs in his one-on-one counseling sessions.
• D. Isolate Gio when he begins to talk about these beliefs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic response in this situation is to acknowledge Gio's feelings of fear and validate his experience by expressing empathy ('this must seem frightening to him'). By reassuring Gio that he is safe in the current environment, the nurse can help reduce his anxiety and build trust. Choice A is not recommended as directly confronting delusional beliefs may lead to increased distress and resistance. Choice C delays addressing Gio's concerns and may not provide immediate support. Choice D of isolating Gio can worsen his feelings of paranoia and distrust in the treatment setting.

4. A client on an acute mental health unit reports hearing voices that are stating, "kill your doctor"?. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy on the unit.
• B. Initiate one-to-one observation of the client.
• C. Focus the client on reality.
• D. Notify the provider of the client's statement.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client experiences command hallucinations, such as being told to harm someone, the priority is ensuring the safety of the client and others. Initiating one-to-one observation allows for close monitoring and intervention to prevent harm. Encouraging participation in group therapy may not be appropriate or safe at this time. Focusing the client on reality may not be effective when experiencing hallucinations, and notifying the provider should come after immediate safety measures have been taken.

5. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?

• A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
• B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
• C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
• D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.

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