Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Which of the following components is associated with hypertonic dehydration?

• A. Plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L
• B. Fluid moves from extracellular space to intracellular space
• C. Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss
• D. Physical signs and symptoms are grossly apparent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Water loss is greater than electrolyte loss.' In hypertonic dehydration, there is a higher loss of water compared to electrolytes, leading to elevated concentrations of electrolytes in the body. This condition is characterized by plasma sodium levels above 150 mEq/L. As water moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space, it results in cellular dehydration. Choice A is incorrect because the plasma sodium levels associated with hypertonic dehydration are typically above 150 mEq/L, not between 130 and 150 mEq/L. Choice B is incorrect as fluid moves from the extracellular space to the intracellular space in hypertonic dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because physical signs and symptoms may not always be grossly apparent in hypertonic dehydration.

3. Which of the following is an example of a breach of a client's right to privacy?

• A. A nurse who is not caring for the client reads the client's personal information in the chart
• B. A client is not allowed to keep a copy of their original medical record
• C. A nurse files an incident report about a client that is reviewed with all staff at a meeting
• D. A client's photograph is used without permission for the hospital newsletter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A breach of a client's right to privacy can occur when their personal information is used or disclosed without their consent. In this scenario, using a client's photograph without permission for the hospital newsletter violates their privacy rights. It is important to respect a client's confidentiality and seek their consent before using their personal information. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to breaching a client's right to privacy. Reading a client's personal information in their chart, not allowing a client to keep a copy of their medical record, and filing an incident report about a client do not necessarily violate their privacy rights as long as the information is handled appropriately and within legal and ethical boundaries.

4. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

5. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

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