Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Employee health test results reveal a tuberculosis (TB) skin test of 16-mm induration and a negative chest x-ray for a staff nurse working on the pulmonary unit. The nurse has no symptoms of TB. Which information should the occupational health nurse plan to teach the staff nurse?

• A. Standard four-drug therapy for TB
• B. Need for annual repeat TB skin testing
• C. Use and side effects of isoniazid (INH)
• D. Bacille Calmette-Gurin (BCG) vaccine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse is considered to have a latent TB infection and should be treated with INH daily for 6 to 9 months. The four-drug therapy would be appropriate if the nurse had active TB. TB skin testing is not done for individuals who have already had a positive skin test. BCG vaccine is not used in the United States for TB and would not be helpful for this individual, who already has a TB infection.

3. A nurse is caring for a 3-day old infant who needs an exchange transfusion. Which of the following statements is appropriate for teaching the child's parents about this procedure?

• A. The registered nurse will be performing the procedure
• B. The procedure takes approximately 1 ? hours.
• C. The nurse will draw out 250cc of blood and then immediately replace it with 250cc
• D. The infant will continue to receive phototherapy during the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: : An exchange transfusion is a method of controlling high bilirubin levels in infants when traditional phototherapy is unsuccessful. During an exchange transfusion, the physician removes 5-10 cc of blood and then replaces it with donor blood. The parents of this infant should know that the procedure is always performed by a physician and will take approximately 1 � hours to complete.

4. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Constipation
• D. A prominent U wave on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

5. The client is receiving an MAOI. Which foods should the nurse caution the client to avoid?

• A. Pork, spinach, and fresh oysters
• B. Milk, grapes, and meat tenderizers
• C. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate
• D. Leafy green vegetables, fresh apples, and ice cream

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client is receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), they should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate are rich in tyramine and can interact with MAOIs, leading to a dangerous rise in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not typically restricted when taking MAOIs.

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