Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. A nurse with five years of experience working in a hospital unit is promoted as a mentor and preceptor to a new nursing staff. This is an example of:

• A. Collegiality
• B. Competence
• C. Advocacy
• D. Integration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collegiality is the action of forming relationships and supporting others through work experiences. In this scenario, the nurse being promoted as a mentor and preceptor exemplifies collegiality by fostering an encouraging educational relationship with the new nursing staff. The nurse demonstrates appropriate nursing care, teaches skills, and supports the professional growth of others. Choice B, 'Competence,' refers to having the necessary skills and knowledge, but in this context, the focus is on the supportive and educational role of the nurse. Choice C, 'Advocacy,' involves speaking up for patients' rights and needs, which is not directly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice D, 'Integration,' does not directly relate to the situation described, where the emphasis is on mentoring and guiding new staff.

3. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of anticipatory guidance for a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture?

• A. Changes associated with puberty
• B. Driving and staying safe
• C. The health hazards of smoking
• D. Social media influences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticipatory guidance is an educational process that provides information important to a client's situation. When considering a 16-year-old who has been hospitalized for an ankle fracture, the most suitable anticipatory guidance would be regarding driving and staying safe. This guidance is crucial as it is age-appropriate and relevant to preventing future injuries. Choices A, C, and D are less pertinent in this scenario. Changes associated with puberty, health hazards of smoking, and social media influences may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a 16-year-old with an ankle fracture.

4. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?

• A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
• B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
• C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
• D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.

5. A client with a broken femur is in a traction splint in bed. Which of the following interventions is NOT part of caring for this client?

• A. Palpating the temperature of both feet
• B. Evaluating pulses bilaterally
• C. Turning the client to a side-lying position
• D. Relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client with a broken femur in a traction splint, turning the client to a side-lying position is not recommended. This client is at risk of skin breakdown and complications due to the injury, making it important to prevent unnecessary movement that may increase the risk of injury or discomfort. Palpating the temperature of both feet helps in assessing circulation, evaluating pulses bilaterally ensures perfusion to the extremities, and relieving heel pressure by placing a pillow under the foot helps in reducing pressure points and preventing complications like pressure ulcers. Therefore, the correct answer is turning the client to a side-lying position as it is not a recommended intervention in this scenario.

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