a 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery when should the discharge training and planning begin for this patient
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Ruth is a 72-year-old patient who has been upset and crying all morning. When asked why she is upset, she turns toward the wall in silence. What collaborative process may be helpful in caring for this patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collaborating with the patient care technician is an appropriate approach in this scenario. Patient care technicians and nurses' aides often provide direct care to patients, developing a closer relationship with them. Patients may feel more comfortable sharing their feelings with these caregivers compared to other healthcare professionals. In this situation, Ruth's distress appears more emotional than spiritual, making it more suitable to speak with someone directly involved in her care. Calling the chaplain (Choice B) might not directly address Ruth's immediate emotional needs as it could focus more on spiritual support. Involving the social worker (Choice C) could help address underlying emotional or social issues, but speaking with the patient care technician is a more direct and immediate step to assess and provide initial support. Calling the patient's husband (Choice D) may not address Ruth's immediate emotional distress and may not be appropriate without understanding the root cause of her upset.

3. Which of the following white blood cells is the smallest and can be involved in humoral immunity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lymphocyte.' Lymphocytes are the smallest type of white blood cells and play a crucial role in humoral immunity by producing antibodies. Monocytes are actually the largest white blood cells and are involved in phagocytosis rather than humoral immunity. Basophils are a type of granulocyte involved in allergic reactions, and erythrocytes are red blood cells responsible for oxygen transport, not part of the immune system.

4. Mrs. M has had diabetes for seven years. She has worked hard to control her blood glucose levels and watch her dietary intake. Her physician orders a hemoglobin A1C test. Which of the following best describes the action of this test?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1C test, also known as a glycated hemoglobin test, determines the amount of hemoglobin that is coated with glucose. Excess glucose in the bloodstream may cause it to attach to hemoglobin on red blood cells. Because the life of these cells is between 2 and 3 months, the hemoglobin A1C is an accurate measurement of a client's glucose during that time. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A relates to anemia and iron supplements, which are not assessed by a hemoglobin A1C test. Choice B mentions excess glucose in the urine, which is typically assessed through a urine glucose test, not the hemoglobin A1C test. Choice C is incorrect as the test is not related to the amount of hemoglobin reaching the liver to support gluconeogenesis; instead, it specifically measures the amount of hemoglobin that is glycated or coated with glucose.

5. A physician has written an order for '2.0 mg MS q 2-4 hr prn pain.' What is the nurse's appropriate response to this order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The physician's order contains several errors that could lead to potential harm to the client if not addressed. The use of '2.0' involves a trailing decimal point, which may lead to confusion regarding the intended dose of the drug. Additionally, the abbreviation 'MS' is considered a Do Not Use abbreviation by the Joint Commission, as it could refer to morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate, leading to medication errors. While the order indicates the drug should be used for pain, the nurse should contact the physician to clarify the exact dose and specific drug to be administered, ensuring safe and accurate medication administration. Therefore, the correct response is to contact the physician to rewrite the order.

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