Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Which of the following is an example of effective time management?

• A. Always agreeing to others' requests for help
• B. Arranging long meetings to discuss important data
• C. Using multiple forms of technology to communicate or educate others
• D. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective time management involves strategies that help individuals focus and complete tasks efficiently. Working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions is an example of effective time management as it allows for concentration and productivity without distractions. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of effective time management. Always agreeing to others' requests for help can lead to overcommitment and time mismanagement. Arranging long meetings can be counterproductive as they consume time that could be used for actual work. Using multiple forms of technology, though helpful, can lead to information overload and inefficiency if not managed properly. Therefore, the most effective choice for optimal time management in this scenario is working in a secluded area to minimize interruptions.

3. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

• A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
• B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
• C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
• D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

4. The OR nursing staff are preparing a client for a surgical procedure. The anesthesiologist has given the client medications, and the client has entered the induction stage of anesthesia. The nursing staff can expect which of the following symptoms and activities from the client during this time?

• A. Irregular breathing patterns
• B. Minimal heartbeat, dilated pupils
• C. Relaxed muscles, regular breathing, constricted pupils
• D. Euphoria, drowsiness, dizziness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the induction stage of anesthesia, the client may exhibit symptoms like euphoria, drowsiness, or dizziness. This stage occurs after the administration of medications by the anesthesiologist and ends when the client loses consciousness. Choice A is incorrect as irregular breathing patterns are not typically associated with the induction stage. Choice B is incorrect as minimal heartbeat and dilated pupils are not commonly observed during this stage. Choice C is incorrect as relaxed muscles, regular breathing, and constricted pupils are not indicative of the induction stage of anesthesia.

5. Which example best describes a nurse who exhibits moral courage?

• A. A nurse feels angry when a parent refuses important treatment for his child.
• B. A nurse considers seeking help for depression when she feels she cannot meet the needs of her clients in the oncology unit.
• C. A nurse contacts a physician for further orders when he fails to order comfort measures for a client with a terminal illness.
• D. A nurse is frustrated when the laboratory is slow in responding to an order for a stat blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Moral courage involves taking action to do what is right, even when there might be negative consequences. The nurse who contacted a physician for further orders acted as a client advocate to seek help, even though she may have faced consequences such as lost time, decreased productivity, or criticism from the physician. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve advocating for a client's needs or challenging a situation that goes against ethical standards. Feeling angry, seeking help for personal issues, or being frustrated with work processes do not necessarily demonstrate moral courage in the context of nursing practice.

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