Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. At the beginning of her shift in a long-term care facility, which of the following clients should a nurse check on first?

• A. A 91-year-old man who needs help eating breakfast
• B. An 86-year-old man who has been incontinent in his bed
• C. An 82-year-old woman who needs IV antibiotics
• D. A 75-year-old man who is recovering from an injury and needs an ice pack

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing care in a long-term care facility, the nurse must consider tasks that require their immediate attention and cannot be delegated. Administering IV antibiotics is a critical nursing task that only the nurse can perform, ensuring the timely and correct delivery of medication to the patient. While assisting with breakfast, managing incontinence, and providing an ice pack are important, these tasks can be delegated to other healthcare team members, allowing the nurse to address the client needing IV antibiotics first to ensure effective treatment and patient safety.

3. Which of the following statements best describes compartment syndrome?

• A. An injury causes pain and tingling that starts in the buttock and travels down the leg.
• B. An injury causes swelling within muscle tissue that leads to anoxia of nerves and muscles.
• C. An injury causes permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint, resulting in deformity.
• D. An injury causes pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Compartment syndrome is characterized by swelling and increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to nerves and muscles. This can result from various causes, such as trauma or the application of a cast after a fracture. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can lead to tissue necrosis. Choice A is incorrect as pain and tingling starting in the buttock and traveling down the leg are not specific features of compartment syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as permanent flexion of the interphalangeal joint is unrelated to compartment syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as pain and swelling of the median plantar nerve do not describe compartment syndrome.

4. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?

• A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
• B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
• C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
• D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.

5. A woman presents with bruises on her face and back in various stages of healing. She states, 'sometimes he just gets so angry.' Which of the following statements is most appropriate as a response from the nurse?

• A. Do you mean your boyfriend?
• B. Do you mean your boyfriend?
• C. No one will ever hurt you again.
• D. Tell me more about what happens when he gets angry.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse is to gather more information by asking the client to elaborate on what occurs when the individual in question gets angry. It is essential for the nurse to understand the situation better before taking any action or making assumptions. Option A and B are repetitive and do not encourage further exploration of the situation. Option C offers a false promise and reassurance that the nurse cannot guarantee, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's needs.

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