Nursing Elites

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. A nurse with five years of experience working in a hospital unit is promoted as a mentor and preceptor to a new nursing staff. This is an example of:

• A. Collegiality
• B. Competence
• C. Advocacy
• D. Integration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collegiality is the action of forming relationships and supporting others through work experiences. In this scenario, the nurse being promoted as a mentor and preceptor exemplifies collegiality by fostering an encouraging educational relationship with the new nursing staff. The nurse demonstrates appropriate nursing care, teaches skills, and supports the professional growth of others. Choice B, 'Competence,' refers to having the necessary skills and knowledge, but in this context, the focus is on the supportive and educational role of the nurse. Choice C, 'Advocacy,' involves speaking up for patients' rights and needs, which is not directly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice D, 'Integration,' does not directly relate to the situation described, where the emphasis is on mentoring and guiding new staff.

3. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

• A. Elevated fibrinogen level
• B. Prolonged PT
• C. Elevated platelet count
• D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

4. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?

• A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
• B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
• C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
• D. The nurse discusses the client's health history

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.

5. Examples of preservation of self-integrity include all of the following except:

• A. Using assistive equipment to move bariatric clients
• B. Participating in wellness programs
• C. Accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices
• D. Using hand hygiene and personal protective equipment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preservation of self-integrity involves actions that support the nurse's well-being and ethical standards. Using assistive equipment to move bariatric clients and practicing hand hygiene and personal protective equipment are essential aspects of maintaining physical health and safety, contributing to self-care. Participating in wellness programs further enhances self-care by promoting overall well-being. However, accepting the challenge of caring for clients with oppositional beliefs or practices can be emotionally taxing and may compromise a nurse's self-integrity if it leads to significant moral distress or ethical conflicts. In such situations, it is important for nurses to prioritize their well-being and ethical values by seeking alternative solutions or support.

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