a 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery when should the discharge training and planning begin for this patient
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

2. Which behavior observed by the nurse indicates a suspicion that a depressed adolescent client may be suicidal?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is when the adolescent gives away a DVD player and a cherished autographed picture of a performer. This behavior is concerning because a depressed suicidal client often gives away things of value as a way of saying goodbye and wanting to be remembered. Choices B, C, and D all involve anger and acting-out behaviors, which are common in adolescents but do not specifically indicate suicidal ideation. Running out of group therapy, swearing, and going to her room, becoming angry and slamming the phone receiver, or getting upset when her roommate borrows her clothes are not clear indications of suicidal thoughts.

3. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

4. A client needs to give informed consent for electroconvulsive therapy treatments. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining informed consent for a procedure like electroconvulsive therapy, the nurse's primary responsibility is to ensure that the client has given consent voluntarily and is capable of making such a decision. While it is essential to provide information on the treatment's benefits, risks, and alternatives, the priority is to verify the client's voluntary consent. Explaining the adverse effects and describing the benefits are important steps in the informed consent process, but the critical step is to confirm the client's voluntary agreement. Outlining possible alternatives to the treatment is also important but comes after ensuring the client's voluntary consent.

5. A 27-year-old writer is admitted for the second time accompanied by his wife. He is demanding, arrogant, talks fast, and is hyperactive. Initially the nurse should plan this for a manic client:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a manic client who is hyperactive and may engage in injurious activities, setting realistic limits to the client's behavior is crucial to ensure safety. A quiet environment with firm and consistent limits helps in managing the client's behavior effectively. While repeating verbal instructions can be helpful due to the client's distractibility, it is not the priority compared to setting limits for safety concerns. Allowing the client to express feelings is important, but it should be done through non-destructive methods. Assigning staff to be with the client at all times is not realistic or feasible in the clinical setting and does not address the core issue of managing the client's behavior and ensuring safety.

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