a nurse is speaking with a client who has schizophrenia when the client suddenly seems to stop focusing on the nurses questions and begins looking at
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers

1. A client with schizophrenia seems to stop focusing during a conversation with a nurse and begins looking at the ceiling and talking to themselves. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia experiences a break in reality like staring at the ceiling and talking to themselves, the nurse should ask directly about the hallucination, as stated in choice B. By doing so, the nurse can assess the situation, identify the client's needs, and evaluate any potential risk for injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Stopping the interview (choice A) may not address the immediate concern of the hallucination. Providing false reassurance (choice C) or ignoring the behavior (choice D) does not actively address the client's altered perception of reality.

2. A nurse is caring for a dying client whose family wants to be with him in the operating suite. The surgeon, however, does not allow families to be present during surgery. The nurse recognizes this as an ethical dilemma. What is the initial step of the nurse when managing this situation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this type of situation, the first action of the nurse should be to address the immediate needs of the client by requesting the physician to make a change based on the circumstances. The primary concern is to ensure the client's well-being and honor the family's wishes, even if it means deviating from standard protocols. While documentation (Choice B) and consulting with higher authorities like the medical ethics committee (Choice C) may be necessary at a later stage, the initial step is to take action to meet the client's needs promptly. Speaking with the chief nursing officer to change the policy (Choice D) is not the most immediate or practical step in this situation, as the focus should be on the client's current care needs.

3. A client in labor has an electronic fetal monitor attached to the abdomen, and the nurse notes that the baby's heart rate slows down during each contraction, returning to normal limits only after the contraction is complete. Which type of fetal heart rate change does this pattern describe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations refer to a pattern where the baby's heart rate decreases during contractions and does not return to normal until after the contraction ends. This is considered a non-reassuring sign as it indicates potential fetal distress. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, and immediate medical attention is required. Variable decelerations (Choice A) are abrupt, unpredictable decreases in the fetal heart rate, usually associated with cord compression. Early decelerations (Choice C) are usually benign and mirror the contraction pattern. Accelerations (Choice D) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being, characterized by an increase in the fetal heart rate.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

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