NCLEX-RN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions
1. Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?
- A. Rhabdomyolysis
- B. Digitalis toxicity
- C. Glomerulonephritis
- D. All answers are correct
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.
2. A new nursing unit is opening in the hospital. In order to meet the staffing needs of the unit, nurses from other areas will be moved and required to work in the new area. When notifying the nurses chosen to staff this area, the nurse manager states, 'You will either move to work on this unit or you will no longer be employed at this hospital.' Which of the following strategies is this nurse manager using?
- A. Manipulation
- B. Facilitation
- C. Co-optation
- D. Coercion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse manager in this scenario is using a coercion tactic to influence the nurses' job changes. Coercion involves using power to force others to make a choice. In this case, the nurses are left with no option but to either work on the new unit or face termination. Choice A, 'Manipulation,' is incorrect as manipulation involves influencing others through deceit or dishonesty, which is not evident in this situation. Choice B, 'Facilitation,' is incorrect as it refers to the process of making something easier or more convenient, which is not applicable here. Choice C, 'Co-optation,' involves absorbing or integrating individuals into a group, which does not align with the scenario described. Therefore, the most suitable term for the nurse manager's strategy is 'Coercion.'
3. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?
- A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
- B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
- C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
- D. Dopamine system stabilizers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
4. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
5. A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?
- A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
- B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
- C. Avoid crossing the legs.
- D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.
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