Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true regarding non-profit organizations?

• A. They are located in various areas, not specifically poor or rural ones.
• B. They are mandated to care for people, even if clients are unable to pay for services.
• C. The money they receive for services is reinvested back into their own business to further develop services.
• D. They are not referred to as proprietary organizations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Non-profit organizations are entities that operate for a social cause or public benefit, and they do not distribute profits to owners or shareholders. They are not limited to being located in poor or rural areas; they can be found in various locations. One key characteristic of non-profits is that they are obligated to provide services, regardless of a client's ability to pay. This ensures that essential services are accessible to all individuals in need. The statement 'The money they receive for services is reinvested back into their own business to further develop services' is correct. Non-profit organizations reinvest any surplus funds back into their operations to enhance the services they provide. The statement 'They are not referred to as proprietary organizations' is correct because proprietary organizations are typically for-profit entities, not non-profit ones.

2. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

3. A client is preparing to undergo a cystoscopy for stones. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the procedure?

• A. I better drink a lot of fluid now because I won't be able to after the test.
• B. I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.
• C. I will be able to go home after 3 days in the hospital.
• D. I won't need any pain medicine; this probably will not hurt.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will probably see a little blood when I urinate.' During a cystoscopy, a scope is inserted into the client's bladder to inspect structures or remove objects like stones. This procedure is usually performed under local or general anesthesia. It is common for clients to experience a small amount of blood in their urine (hematuria) or have pink-colored urine after the procedure. The other choices are incorrect because drinking a lot of fluid before the test, staying in the hospital for 3 days, and assuming no pain will be experienced are not accurate statements related to a cystoscopy procedure.

4. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.

• A. Infants: High bilirubin
• B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
• C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
• D. The Elderly: Malaria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.

5. A 31-year-old woman who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is accurate?

• A. MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy
• B. Women with MS frequently have premature labor
• C. MS is associated with an increased risk for congenital defects
• D. Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After pregnancy, women with MS are at higher risk for exacerbation of symptoms due to the postpartum period. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born to mothers with MS. Symptoms of MS may actually improve during pregnancy, likely due to hormonal changes. MS does not significantly impact the onset of labor. Therefore, the correct response is that MS symptoms may worsen after pregnancy, making option A the accurate answer. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the risks associated with pregnancy in individuals with MS.

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