Nursing Elites

1. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

2. During an intake screening for a patient with hypertension who has been taking ramipril for 4 weeks, which statement made by the patient would be most important for the nurse to pass on to the physician?

• A. ''I get dizzy when I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I'm urinating much more than I used to.''
• C. ''I've been running on the treadmill for 10 minutes each day.''
• D. ''I can't get rid of this cough.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is ''I can't get rid of this cough.'' Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent, dry cough as an adverse effect. This symptom can be indicative of bradykinin accumulation caused by ACE inhibitors. It is important for the nurse to inform the physician about this side effect so that a medication change to another class of antihypertensives, such as an ARB, may be considered. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the common adverse effects of ramipril and are not as concerning for a patient on this medication.

3. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
• B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
• C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
• D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

4. A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Decreased HR
• B. Paresthesias
• C. Muscle weakness of the extremities
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Migraines.' Migraines are not a symptom typically associated with hyperkalemia. In acute hyperkalemia, one would not expect to see migraines. Symptoms of hyperkalemia often include muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac manifestations such as bradycardia or even cardiac arrest. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are more commonly associated with acute hyperkalemia compared to migraines, making it the correct choice.

5. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
• D. Stay with the woman until help comes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

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