Nursing Elites

1. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

2. A client is scheduled for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP). In order to prepare the client for this test, the nurse would:

• A. Instruct the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination
• B. Restrict the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination
• C. Administer a laxative to the client the evening before the examination
• D. Inform the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a laxative to the client the evening before the examination is the correct action. Bowel prep is crucial for an Intravenous Pyelogram (IVP) as it helps in achieving better visualization of the bladder and ureters. Instructing the client to maintain a regular diet the day prior to the examination (Choice A) is not the appropriate preparation for an IVP. Restricting the client's fluid intake 4 hours prior to the examination (Choice B) is not necessary for this test. Informing the client that only 1 x-ray of his abdomen is necessary (Choice D) is not relevant to the preparation process for an IVP.

3. Which interventions should the nurse include when creating a care plan for a child with hepatitis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet.
• B. Teaching the child effective hand-washing techniques.
• C. Notifying the primary health care provider (PHCP) if jaundice is present.
• D. Instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is instructing the parents to avoid administering medications unless prescribed. This choice is not directly related to the care of a child with hepatitis. It is essential for the nurse to educate the child and family about providing a low-fat, well-balanced diet to support the liver, teaching effective hand-washing techniques to prevent the spread of infection, and notifying the primary health care provider if jaundice is present to monitor the progression of the disease and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Avoiding unnecessary medications is crucial, but it should be done under healthcare provider guidance, so the statement should be revised to reflect this aspect. Therefore, the other options are appropriate for the care of a child with hepatitis.

4. A nurse prepares to care for a 4-year-old newly admitted for rhabdomyosarcoma. The nurse should alert the staff to pay more attention to the function of which area of the body?

• A. All striated muscles
• B. The cerebellum
• C. The kidneys
• D. The leg bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common soft tissue sarcoma in children, originating in striated (skeletal) muscles and potentially affecting any part of the body. Symptoms vary based on the location of the tumor. In the head or neck area, symptoms may include sudden bulging or swelling of the eyes, conjunctival chemosis, and headache. Rhabdomyosarcoma can also impact organs like the urinary or reproductive system. Common metastatic sites include the lungs. Therefore, the nurse should pay attention to the function of all striated muscles in the child to monitor for any signs or symptoms related to the disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as rhabdomyosarcoma primarily involves striated muscles and does not specifically target the cerebellum, kidneys, or leg bones.

5. Mr. B is recovering from a surgical procedure that was performed four days ago. The nurse's assessment finds this client coughing up rust-colored sputum; his respiratory rate is 28/minute with expiratory grunting, and his lung sounds have coarse crackles on auscultation. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Histoplasmosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's presentation of coughing up rust-colored sputum, increased respiratory rate, expiratory grunting, and coarse crackles on lung auscultation suggests the development of pneumonia. Pneumonia is characterized by lung tissue inflammation or infection, often caused by various organisms. Symptoms may include productive cough, dyspnea, and abnormal breath sounds. Tuberculosis (Choice A) typically presents with a chronic cough, weight loss, and night sweats and is less likely in this acute post-operative setting. Pulmonary edema (Choice B) is characterized by pink, frothy sputum, crackles throughout the lungs, and typically occurs in the context of heart failure. Histoplasmosis (Choice D) is a fungal infection that usually presents with flu-like symptoms and is less likely to manifest with the specific respiratory findings described in this case.

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