Nursing Elites

1. During shift change, a healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's medication. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant?

• A. Warfarin (Coumadin)
• B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
• C. Clonidine (Catapres)
• D. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol)

Correct answer: Warfarin (Coumadin)

Rationale: Warfarin (Coumadin) is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its pregnancy category X classification. It is associated with central nervous system defects, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, prematurity, hemorrhage, and ocular defects when administered at any time during pregnancy. Fetal warfarin syndrome can occur when given during the first trimester. Celecoxib (Celebrex) is a pregnancy category C medication, which means there may be risks but benefits may outweigh them. Clonidine (Catapres) is also a pregnancy category C drug, and while animal studies have shown adverse effects on the fetus, there are limited human studies. Transdermal nicotine (Habitrol) is classified as a pregnancy category D drug, indicating positive evidence of fetal risk, but benefits may still warrant its use in pregnant women with serious conditions.

2. A 64-year-old patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is hospitalized with pneumonia. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care?

• A. Assist with active range of motion (ROM).
• B. Observe for agitation and paranoia.
• C. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms.
• D. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

Correct answer: Assist with active range of motion (ROM).

Rationale: In a patient with ALS, progressive muscle weakness is a significant issue. Assisting with active range of motion (ROM) exercises will help maintain muscle strength for as long as possible. Agitation and paranoia are not typically associated with ALS, making choice B incorrect. Giving muscle relaxants can further weaken muscles and depress respirations, worsening the condition, so choice C is inappropriate. Choice D is not directly related to the patient's physical condition and needs.

3. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown (“tea-colored”) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: Generalized edema.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

4. A patient asks a nurse administering blood how long red blood cells live in the body. What is the correct response?

• A. The life span of RBC is 45 days
• B. The life span of RBC is 60 days
• C. The life span of RBC is 90 days
• D. The life span of RBC is 120 days

Correct answer: The life span of RBC is 120 days

Rationale: The correct answer is that red blood cells have a lifespan of 120 days in the body. This allows for efficient oxygen transport throughout the circulatory system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lifespan of red blood cells is actually 120 days. Understanding the lifespan of red blood cells is crucial in assessing various conditions related to blood cell production and turnover.

5. A patient is being visited at home by a healthcare professional. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the healthcare professional needs to contact the physician?

• A. I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals.
• B. My back pain right now is about a 3/10.
• C. I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen
• D. I have ringing in my ears.

Correct answer: I have ringing in my ears.

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I have ringing in my ears.' Ringing in the ears is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen, indicating potential toxicity. This symptom warrants immediate medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are less concerning and do not directly indicate a severe adverse effect or toxicity related to Naproxen. Upset stomach, mild back pain, and occasional headaches are common side effects that may not require immediate physician contact.

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