Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant woman who is 36 weeks' pregnant and has hepatitis B is being informed by a nurse. Which of the following statements from the client indicates understanding of this condition?

• A. Now I know my baby will need a cesarean section.
• B. My baby will need two shots soon after birth.
• C. I will not be able to breastfeed.
• D. My baby's father does not need testing; I know I am the one with hepatitis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'My baby will need two shots soon after birth.' A baby born to a mother with hepatitis B should receive two injections soon after birth to reduce the risk of contracting the disease. Within the first 12 hours post-birth, the baby should receive the first hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) for additional protection. Option A is incorrect because the need for a cesarean section is not directly related to the mother's hepatitis B status. Option C is incorrect as breastfeeding can be safe if managed properly. Option D is incorrect as the baby's father should also be tested for hepatitis B to prevent transmission to the newborn.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?

• A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
• B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
• C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
• D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.

3. A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?

• A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• D. Furosemide (Lasix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.

4. When obtaining a health history and physical assessment for a 36-year-old female patient with possible multiple sclerosis (MS), the nurse should

• A. assess for the presence of chest pain.
• B. inquire about urinary tract problems.
• C. inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration.
• D. ask the patient about any increase in libido.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a patient for possible multiple sclerosis (MS), it is important to inquire about urinary tract problems as they are common symptoms of the condition, such as incontinence or retention. Chest pain is not typically associated with MS, so assessing for its presence is not a priority. Inspecting the skin for rashes or discoloration is not a typical manifestation of MS. Additionally, a decrease in libido, rather than an increase, is more commonly seen in patients with MS. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to inquire about urinary tract problems.

5. A diabetic patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.28; PaCO2 34 mm Hg; PaO2 85 mm Hg; HCO3 18 mEq/L. The nurse would expect which finding?

• A. Intercostal retractions
• B. Kussmaul respirations
• C. Low oxygen saturation (SpO2)
• D. Decreased venous O2 pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (deep and rapid) are a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis. The low pH and low bicarbonate levels indicate metabolic acidosis. Intercostal retractions, low oxygen saturation, and decreased venous O2 pressure are not associated with acidosis. Intercostal retractions typically occur in respiratory distress, while low oxygen saturation and decreased venous O2 pressure are more related to respiratory or circulatory issues, not metabolic acidosis.

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