NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Preview Answers
1. A woman who has lived in the United States for a year after moving from Europe has learned to speak English and is almost finished with her college studies. She now dresses like her peers and says that her family in Europe would hardly recognize her. This situation illustrates which concept?
- A. Integration
- B. Assimilation
- C. Biculturalism
- D. Heritage consistency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assimilation is a unidirectional, linear process moving from unacculturated to acculturated, in which a person develops a new cultural identity and becomes like members of the dominant culture. In this scenario, the woman has adapted to the new culture by learning the language, dressing like her peers, and expressing that her family in Europe would hardly recognize her. This aligns with the process of assimilation. Integration and biculturalism, on the other hand, involve bidirectional and bidimensional processes that induce reciprocal change in both cultures while maintaining aspects of the original culture in one's ethnic identity. Since there is no indication in the question that the woman has retained aspects of her original culture, integration and biculturalism are not the correct concepts. Heritage consistency refers to the degree to which one retains their original or traditional culture, which is not addressed in the scenario provided.
2. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
3. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?
- A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
- B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
- C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
- D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.
4. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
- B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
- C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
- D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.
5. Which of the following diseases would require the nurse to wear an N95 respirator as part of personal protective equipment?
- A. Human immunodeficiency virus
- B. Clostridium difficile enterocolitis
- C. Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
- D. Measles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Infections that require airborne precautions necessitate the use of an N95 respirator, a type of mask that filters particles that are 5 micrograms or smaller. Illnesses that require airborne precautions include Measles, Varicella, Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), and tuberculosis. Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease caused by a virus. It can spread through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Wearing an N95 respirator helps prevent the nurse from inhaling these infectious particles. Human immunodeficiency virus, Clostridium difficile enterocolitis, and Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus do not require the use of an N95 respirator as they are not transmitted through the air but have other modes of transmission.
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