NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?
- A. Odor
- B. Nausea
- C. Malaise
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.
2. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?
- A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
- B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
- C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
- D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.
3. Mr. L was working in his garage at home and had an accident with a power saw. He is brought into the emergency department by a neighbor with a traumatic hand amputation. What is the first action of the nurse?
- A. Place a tourniquet at the level of the elbow
- B. Apply direct pressure to the injury
- C. Administer a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline
- D. Elevate the injured extremity on a pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse in this scenario is to apply direct pressure to the injury. When a client presents with traumatic hand amputation causing excessive bleeding, the immediate goal is to control the bleeding. Applying direct pressure with a sterile dressing helps to stem the flow of blood and stabilize the patient. Placing a tourniquet at the level of the elbow should be avoided initially as it may lead to further complications such as tissue damage. Administering a bolus of 0.9% Normal Saline is not the priority in this situation where hemorrhage control is crucial. Elevating the injured extremity on a pillow does not address the primary concern of controlling the bleeding and stabilizing the patient.
4. Which of the following techniques can help to prevent skin irritation or breakdown around a tracheostomy site?
- A. Manage secretions by providing suction on a regular basis
- B. Cleanse the site daily with a mixture of povidone-iodine and water
- C. Avoid using tube ties to secure the tube
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Excess secretions from the tracheostomy tube can collect near the stomal opening and cause skin breakdown. Management of secretions through regular suctioning will keep the area clean and dry, minimizing skin irritation. Choice B, cleansing the site daily with povidone-iodine and water, is incorrect as it may lead to skin irritation due to the harshness of povidone-iodine. Choice C, avoiding tube ties to secure the tube, is also incorrect as securing the tube is essential for stability. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as managing secretions through suctioning is crucial in preventing skin irritation.
5. A 55-year-old patient admitted with an abrupt onset of jaundice and nausea has abnormal liver function studies, but serologic testing is negative for viral causes of hepatitis. Which question by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Is there any history of IV drug use?
- B. Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?
- C. Are you taking corticosteroids for any reason?
- D. Have you recently traveled to a foreign country?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask in this scenario is whether the patient uses any over-the-counter drugs. The patient's symptoms, negative serologic testing for viral hepatitis, and sudden onset of symptoms point towards toxic hepatitis, which can be triggered by commonly used over-the-counter medications like acetaminophen (Tylenol). Asking about IV drug use is relevant for viral hepatitis, not toxic hepatitis. Inquiring about recent travel to a foreign country is more pertinent to potential exposure to infectious agents causing viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use is not typically associated with the symptoms described in the case.
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