NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A 3-year-old child is seen in the health care clinic, and a diagnosis of encopresis is made. The nurse expects to provide teaching about which client problem?
- A. Odor
- B. Nausea
- C. Malaise
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encopresis is the repeated voluntary or involuntary passage of feces of normal or near-normal consistency in places not appropriate for that purpose according to the individual's own sociocultural setting. Signs of encopresis include evidence of soiled clothing, scratching or rubbing the anal area due to irritation, fecal odor without apparent awareness by the child, and social withdrawal. Teaching about odor is essential to address the issue of encopresis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because encopresis is not typically associated with nausea, malaise, or diarrhea. Therefore, teaching about these symptoms would not be relevant in the context of encopresis.
2. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
- A. Anesthesia reaction
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.
3. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
4. The parents of a newborn with hypospadias are reviewing the treatment plan with the nurse. Which statement by the parents indicates their understanding of the plan?
- A. Caution should be used when straddling my infant on a hip.
- B. Vital signs should be taken daily to check for bladder infection.
- C. Catheterization will be necessary when my infant does not void.
- D. Circumcision has been delayed to save tissue for surgical repair.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect involving abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis. In hypospadias, the urethral orifice is located below the glans penis along the ventral surface. It's important not to circumcise the infant, as the dorsal foreskin tissue will be required for surgical repair of the hypospadias. Option A is unrelated to the treatment plan for hypospadias. Option B is not directly related to the surgical repair of hypospadias. Option C is not a routine part of the treatment plan for hypospadias, as catheterization is usually managed by healthcare professionals.
5. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?
- A. It is the correct dose
- B. The dose is too low
- C. The dose is too high
- D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.
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