Nursing Elites

1. The nurse practicing in a maternity setting recognizes that the postmature fetus is at risk due to:

• A. Excessive fetal weight
• B. Low blood sugar levels
• C. Depletion of subcutaneous fat
• D. Progressive placental insufficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A postmature or postterm pregnancy occurs when a pregnancy exceeds the typical term of 38 to 42 weeks. In this situation, the fetus is at risk due to progressive placental insufficiency. This occurs because the placenta loses its ability to function effectively after 42 weeks. The accumulation of calcium deposits in the placenta reduces blood perfusion, oxygen supply, and nutrient delivery to the fetus, leading to potential growth problems. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because excessive fetal weight, low blood sugar levels, and depletion of subcutaneous fat are not the primary risks associated with postmature fetuses. The main concern lies in the compromised placental function and its impact on fetal well-being.

2. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?

• A. Following surgery
• B. Upon admission
• C. Within 48 hours of discharge
• D. Preoperative discussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.

3. Who owns a patient's x-rays?

• A. The patient
• B. The doctor
• C. The facility that performed the procedure
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.

4. Research participants are involved in a trial that incidentally separates them into two groups. One group receives an intervention, while the other group does not. Both groups are compared for outcomes. What type of research method is this?

• A. Experimental design
• B. Double-blind experiment
• C. Randomized controlled trial
• D. Repeated measures design

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A randomized controlled trial is a research method in which participants are randomly assigned to either a treatment or control group. This design helps eliminate bias and allows for the comparison of outcomes between the two groups. In this scenario, where participants are separated into intervention and non-intervention groups for comparison, it aligns with the characteristics of a randomized controlled trial. The key feature distinguishing it from the other options is the random assignment of participants to groups, ensuring that both groups are comparable at the start of the study. Double-blind experiments involve blinding both participants and researchers to treatment allocation, which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Experimental design refers to a broader category that includes various types of research designs beyond just randomized controlled trials. Repeated measures design involves collecting multiple observations from the same participants over time, which is not the case described in the scenario.

5. Jack is a 2-month-old with a diagnosis of spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) type I. He has been admitted to the hospital for progressive respiratory difficulty. His parents have been informed that if he is not placed on ventilatory support, he will continue to decompensate and die of respiratory failure. Jack's physician discusses the poor prognosis of Jack's condition, and tells the parents that he will not be able to be removed from ventilatory support once it is initiated, due to his progressive neurological disease. After much discussion, the parents have decided to decline ventilatory support, agree to a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, and request hospice care for Jack. Another parent heard them discussing Jack's situation in the waiting room and says she could never do that to her baby. What is the most appropriate response to this parent?

• A. You never know what you'll do until you're in that situation.
• B. I can't discuss another patient's situation.
• C. They have been through too much already.
• D. You can contact administration with your concerns.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In healthcare settings, privacy regulations prevent professionals from discussing patient situations with individuals not involved in that patient's care. Maintaining patient confidentiality is crucial to protect sensitive information. In this scenario, sharing details about Jack's situation with the parent who overheard the conversation would breach confidentiality. It is important to handle such situations delicately, especially in emotional environments like intensive care unit waiting rooms. While empathy and support are essential, it is equally crucial to respect patient privacy and confidentiality. Therefore, responding with 'I can't discuss another patient's situation' is the most appropriate and professional response in this context.

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