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NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. When assisting a client with shampooing his hair while he is still in bed, a nurse raises the bed to approximately the level of her waist. What is the rationale for this action?
- A. To prevent shampoo from getting into the client's eyes
- B. To allow excess water to run off the edge of the bed
- C. To decrease strain on the nurse's back
- D. To prevent the client's hair from developing tangles
Correct answer: C: To decrease strain on the nurse's back
Rationale: Raising the bed to the level of the nurse's waist while assisting a client with shampooing in bed is done to reduce strain on the nurse's back. This adjustment ensures that the nurse can work comfortably without excessive bending or stooping, thus preventing back injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While preventing shampoo from getting into the client's eyes, allowing excess water to run off the bed, and preventing hair tangles are important considerations, the primary rationale for raising the bed is to prioritize the nurse's ergonomic safety and prevent musculoskeletal strain.
2. Your patient has been diagnosed with herpes simplex virus 2. Which of the following would NOT be included in your teaching of this patient?
- A. If you have symptoms, you should avoid sexual contact with other individuals.
- B. With treatment, this condition can be cured.
- C. This disease is highly contagious.
- D. You may experience tingling in the skin before an active outbreak occurs.
Correct answer: With treatment, this condition can be cured.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'With treatment, this condition can be cured.' The treatment for herpes simplex virus (HSV) is symptomatic and palliative, aimed at managing symptoms rather than curing the infection. HSV is highly contagious, so sexual contact should be avoided during active outbreaks to prevent transmission. Many patients experience a tingling sensation in the skin before an active outbreak, known as a prodrome. Educating the patient that the condition is not curable but manageable with treatment is vital to set realistic expectations and promote proper management of the disease.
3. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for a stroke?
- A. A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
- B. A 75-year-old male who has frequent migraines, drinks a glass of wine every day, and is Hispanic
- C. A 40-year-old female who has high cholesterol and uses oral contraceptives
- D. A 65-year-old female who is African American, has sickle cell disease, and smokes cigarettes
Correct answer: A 60-year-old male who weighs 270 pounds, has atrial fibrillation, and has had a TIA in the past
Rationale: The correct answer is the 60-year-old male who has a combination of significant risk factors for stroke, including atrial fibrillation, a history of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), and obesity. These factors greatly increase his risk of stroke. While other choices may have some individual risk factors, they do not collectively pose as high a risk as the patient described in option A. Option B includes migraines and alcohol consumption but lacks other major risk factors seen in option A. Option C mentions high cholesterol and oral contraceptives, which are risk factors but not as significant as atrial fibrillation and a prior TIA. Option D includes smoking and sickle cell disease but lacks the crucial risk factors present in option A.
4. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
- B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
- C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
- D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.
Correct answer: Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.
5. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to maintain the patency of a client's nasogastric tube?
- A. Maintain a constant connection to low-intermittent suction
- B. Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
- C. Suction the mouth and nose every shift
- D. Perform a daily fecal occult blood sample
Correct answer: Irrigate the tube as per physician's order
Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the tube as per physician's order. A client with a nasogastric tube is at risk of the tube kinking or clotting off, which can lead to complications such as abdominal distention or vomiting. To ensure the patency of the tube, the nurse should follow the physician's orders and facility policy to irrigate the tube with water or a solution as needed. Maintaining a constant connection to low-intermittent suction (Choice A) is not typically done to maintain tube patency. Suctioning the mouth and nose every shift (Choice C) is not directly related to maintaining nasogastric tube patency. Performing a daily fecal occult blood sample (Choice D) is unrelated to maintaining the patency of a nasogastric tube.
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