NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?
- A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
- B. Capillary refill is 1 second
- C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
- D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.
2. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
- A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
- B. "I can't see on my left side."?
- C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
- D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.
3. A client is in the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) shivering despite being covered with several layers of blankets. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Turn the client to the prone position
- B. Assist the client in breathing deeply
- C. Administer meperidine as ordered
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the post-anesthesia care unit, clients may experience shivering or chills due to a drop in body temperature after surgery. Meperidine (Demerol) can be prescribed to alleviate shivering in cold clients. The prone position (lying face down) and deep breathing exercises are not interventions specifically indicated for addressing shivering due to low body temperature. Therefore, administering meperidine as ordered is the most appropriate action to manage the client's shivering in this scenario.
4. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
- A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
- B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
- C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
- D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
5. A patient is admitted with active tuberculosis (TB). The nurse should question a healthcare provider's order to discontinue airborne precautions unless which assessment finding is documented?
- A. Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
- B. TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
- C. Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
- D. Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative. Negative sputum smears indicate that Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not present in the sputum, and the patient cannot transmit the bacteria by the airborne route. This finding is crucial for discontinuing airborne precautions. Choice A is incorrect because chest x-rays do not determine the presence of active TB for transmission precautions. Choice B is not directly related to the infectiousness of TB; completing a 6-month course of medication is important for treatment but does not confirm the absence of active disease or infectiousness. Choice C is not relevant to assessing infectiousness; Mantoux testing measures exposure to TB but does not confirm the absence of active infection or infectiousness.
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