Nursing Elites

1. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
• B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
• C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
• D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.

2. The nurse has just admitted a client with severe depression. From which focus should the nurse identify a priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Nutrition
• B. Elimination
• C. Activity
• D. Safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with severe depression, safety is a critical priority. The nurse must address precautions to prevent suicide as part of the care plan. While nutrition, elimination, and activity are important aspects of care, safety takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm associated with depression. Ensuring the client's safety by implementing measures to prevent self-harm or suicide is the priority intervention. Addressing nutrition, elimination, and activity can follow once the client's safety is assured.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

• A. Slow pulse rate
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased systolic pressure
• D. Irregular WBC lab values

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain due to fluid accumulation is associated with heart failure and congenital heart defects. When the heart is unable to circulate blood normally, the kidneys receive less blood, leading to reduced fluid filtration into the urine. The excess fluid accumulates in various body parts such as the lungs, liver, eyes, and sometimes in the legs. Slow pulse rate (Choice A) is less likely as infants with heart failure typically present with tachycardia due to the body compensating for decreased cardiac output. Decreased systolic pressure (Choice C) is also less likely as heart failure typically leads to increased blood pressure as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion. Irregular white blood cell (WBC) values (Choice D) are not directly associated with congenital heart defects unless there is an underlying infection or inflammatory process.

4. A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse least likely to find in an abusing parent?

• A. Low self-esteem
• B. Unemployment
• C. Self-blame for the injury to the child
• D. Single status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The profile of a parent at risk of abusive behavior includes a tendency to blame the child or others for the injury sustained. Abusers typically blame others, especially their partners, for the mistakes in their lives. This is related to hypersensitivity, but they are not necessarily alike. This occurs because most abusive people don't hold themselves as being accountable for the actions they commit. Instead, they'll try to shift the blame to the person that they have abused and somehow say they "deserved it"? or that they were forced into a corner.

5. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage?

• A. A client who is 9 weeks pregnant
• B. A client with a femur fracture
• C. A morbidly obese client
• D. A client with hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is contraindicated in morbidly obese clients due to several reasons. Excess body fat in morbidly obese individuals makes it challenging to locate essential landmarks required for the procedure. Additionally, the equipment utilized for the lavage may not be sized appropriately to accommodate an obese individual. Furthermore, morbid obesity places undue stress on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, increasing the risk of complications when administering anesthetic agents during the procedure. Therefore, performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage on a morbidly obese client is not recommended. Choice A, a client who is 9 weeks pregnant, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Pregnancy status alone does not preclude the procedure unless there are specific maternal or fetal concerns. Choice B, a client with a femur fracture, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. The presence of a femur fracture does not typically affect the ability to perform this diagnostic procedure. Choice D, a client with hypertension, is not a contraindication for diagnostic peritoneal lavage. Hypertension, while a consideration for anesthesia and surgery, does not directly impact the feasibility of performing a diagnostic peritoneal lavage.

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