NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. When administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30-day-old infant, which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?
- A. Gluteus maximus
- B. Gluteus minimus
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Vastus medialis
Correct answer: Vastus lateralis
Rationale: When administering medications to infants, it is common to use the vastus lateralis muscle in the thigh for injections. The preferred site is the junction of the upper and middle thirds of the vastus lateralis muscle. This area provides a good muscle mass for the injection and minimizes the risk of hitting nerves or blood vessels. The gluteus maximus and gluteus minimus are not typically used for infant injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The vastus medialis is not as commonly used as the vastus lateralis for infant injections.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Contact the physician immediately
- B. Administer a bolus of 50 cc of D20W through the IV
- C. Administer 10 units of regular insulin
- D. Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Correct answer: Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice
Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.
3. A client has been diagnosed with a form of terminal cancer and has started receiving hospice care. The nurse notes that both the client and his family avoid talking about the diagnosis. All attempts at discussion result in changing the subject. The nurse recognizes that this family is exhibiting:
- A. Closed awareness
- B. Mutual pretense
- C. Open awareness
- D. Powerless assessment
Correct answer: Mutual pretense
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mutual pretense.' Mutual pretense is a form of awareness as a response to death or dying in which those involved avoid discussing the situation. In this scenario, both the client and the family are aware of the terminal cancer diagnosis, but they choose not to talk about it openly. This behavior can stem from various reasons, such as trying to shield loved ones from grief, fear of the future, or discomfort with discussing emotions. 'Closed awareness' (Choice A) refers to a lack of awareness of the impending death, which is not the case here. 'Open awareness' (Choice C) involves open acknowledgment and discussion of the terminal illness, which is contrary to the behavior described. 'Powerless assessment' (Choice D) does not relate to the situation of avoiding discussing the diagnosis in the context of terminal cancer and hospice care.
4. The patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving epoprostenol (Flolan). Which assessment information requires the most immediate action by the nurse?
- A. The oxygen saturation is 94%.
- B. The blood pressure is 98/56 mm Hg.
- C. The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
- D. The international normalized ratio (INR) is prolonged.
Correct answer: The patient's central IV line is disconnected.
Rationale: The most immediate action required by the nurse is to address the disconnected central IV line delivering epoprostenol (Flolan). Epoprostenol has a short half-life of 6 minutes, necessitating immediate reconnection to prevent rapid clinical deterioration. While oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and INR are important parameters requiring monitoring and intervention, the priority lies in ensuring the continuous delivery of the critical medication to stabilize the patient's condition.
5. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?
- A. Fever and rash
- B. Circumoral cyanosis
- C. Elevated glucose levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: Fever and rash
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
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