NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A healthcare professional has just received a medication order that is not legible. Which statement best reflects assertive communication?
- A. I cannot give this medication as it is written. I have no idea what you mean.
- B. Would you please clarify what you have written so I am sure I am reading it correctly?
- C. I am having difficulty reading your handwriting. It would save me time if you would be more careful.
- D. Please print in the future so I do not have to spend extra time attempting to read your writing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assertive communication respects the rights and responsibilities of both parties. Choice B is the best example of assertive communication in this scenario. It addresses the issue directly by requesting clarification without blaming or devaluing the prescriber. This approach shows concern for safe practice and acknowledges the importance of clear communication in healthcare. Choices A, C, and D either involve self-depreciation, blaming the prescriber, or making demands without a respectful request for clarification, making them less effective in promoting effective communication and safe patient care.
2. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
- C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
- D. Generalized edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.
3. After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, what is a priority nursing consideration for a patient in the day surgery center?
- A. Raise the siderails of the patient's bed
- B. Do not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake
- C. Check the temperature of the patient
- D. Teach the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, the priority nursing consideration is to not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake to the patient. Endoscopies involve passing a tube through the mouth into the esophagus or upper GI. Anesthesia is often given to inactivate the gag reflex, making the patient vulnerable to aspiration. Raising the siderails of the patient's bed is important for safety but not the immediate priority. Checking the patient's temperature may be important but is not the priority immediately after the procedure. Teaching the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS is important for post-procedure care but is not the priority immediately after the endoscopic procedure.
4. To prevent a Valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction, the nurse would:
- A. Assist the client in using the bedside commode.
- B. Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
- C. Administer antidysrhythmics prn as ordered.
- D. Maintain the client on strict bed rest.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering stool softeners daily is crucial to prevent straining during defecation, which can lead to the Valsalva maneuver. Straining can increase intrathoracic pressure, decrease venous return to the heart, and reduce cardiac output, potentially worsening the client's condition. If constipation occurs, the use of laxatives may be necessary to avoid straining. Administering antidysrhythmics on an as-needed basis is not indicated for preventing the Valsalva maneuver; they are used to manage dysrhythmias. Strict bed rest is not necessary and may lead to complications such as deconditioning, DVT, and respiratory issues in the absence of specific medical indications.
5. A patient is getting discharged from a skilled nursing facility (SNF). The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about his ability to breathe easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?
- A. Deep breathing techniques to increase oxygen levels.
- B. Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.
- C. Cough following bronchodilator utilization.
- D. Decrease CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to cough following bronchodilator utilization. In COPD and PVD patients, bronchodilators help to open up the airways, making coughing more effective in clearing secretions from the lungs. This instruction can aid in improving the patient's ability to breathe by enhancing airway clearance. Deep breathing techniques (Choice A) may help increase oxygen levels but may not directly address the patient's immediate concern of breathing difficulty. Coughing regularly and deeply (Choice B) can be beneficial, but the timing following bronchodilator use is more crucial to maximize its effectiveness. Decreasing CO2 levels by increasing oxygen intake during meals (Choice D) does not directly address the patient's concern about breathing ease or the role of bronchodilators in improving cough effectiveness.
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