Nursing Elites

1. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?

• A. Administer 2 ventilations
• B. Perform a head-tilt, chin lift to open the airway
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Perform a jaw thrust to open the airway

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.

2. During your evaluation of a 14-year-old girl with a BMI of 18, she reports inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

• A. Multiple sclerosis
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia nervosa
• D. Systemic sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the question is highly suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is characterized by self-imposed starvation due to a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is underweight. The patient's symptoms of inability to eat, induced vomiting, and severe constipation align with the behavior seen in anorexia nervosa, including restrictive eating patterns and purging behaviors. Multiple sclerosis (Choice A) is a neurological disorder, not associated with the described symptoms. Bulimia nervosa (Choice C) typically involves binge eating followed by purging behaviors, which is different from the described primary restriction seen in anorexia nervosa. Systemic sclerosis (Choice D) is a connective tissue disorder and is not related to the symptoms of self-induced vomiting and severe constipation reported in this case.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

• A. Borrelia burgdorferi
• B. Streptococcus pyogenes
• C. Bacillus anthracis
• D. Enterococcus faecalis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lyme disease, the most common vector-borne disease in the United States, is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Borrelia burgdorferi is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks. Streptococcus pyogenes is associated with strep throat and other infections, not Lyme disease. Bacillus anthracis causes anthrax, a separate infectious disease. Enterococcus faecalis is more commonly linked to urinary tract infections and other healthcare-associated infections, not Lyme disease.

4. The patient's symptoms, lack of antibodies for hepatitis, and the abrupt onset of symptoms suggest toxic hepatitis, which can be caused by commonly used over-the-counter drugs such as acetaminophen (Tylenol). Travel to a foreign country and a history of IV drug use are risk factors for viral hepatitis. Corticosteroid use does not cause the symptoms listed.

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Temperature
• C. Activity level
• D. Albumin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The low oncotic pressure caused by hypoalbuminemia is a major pathophysiologic factor in the development of edema. In this case, monitoring the albumin level is crucial to assess the patient's fluid balance and potential for edema. While hemoglobin, temperature, and activity level are important parameters to monitor in a patient's assessment, they are not directly associated with the patient's current symptoms of toxic hepatitis and edema development. Therefore, the correct choice is the albumin level.

5. A child has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?

• A. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
• B. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
• C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
• D. Physical activity should be minimized.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs are important as a first-line treatment and typically require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Choice A is incorrect as early treatment can improve outcomes and prevent joint deformities. Choice B is incorrect as juvenile idiopathic arthritis does not necessarily progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis. Choice D is incorrect as physical activity should be encouraged in children with arthritis to maintain joint mobility and overall health.

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