Nursing Elites

1. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
• B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
• C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
• D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.

2. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

• A. alprazolam (Xanax)
• B. Corticosteroid injection
• C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
• D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.

3. A 49-year-old female patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator that the medication has been effective?

• A. The patient reports no chest pain.
• B. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Stools test negative for occult blood.
• D. The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best indicator that propranolol has been effective in a patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices is when the stools test negative for occult blood. Propranolol is prescribed to decrease the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This medication's effectiveness is primarily assessed by the absence of blood in the stools, indicating a reduction in the risk of bleeding from the varices. Monitoring for chest pain, blood pressure control, and a decrease in heart rate are important parameters in other conditions treated with propranolol, such as hypertension, angina, and tachycardia, but in this particular case, the absence of occult blood in the stools is the most relevant indicator of treatment success.

4. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is on the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

• A. Anesthesia reaction
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat solid foods, the likely cause of symptoms such as confusion and shakiness is hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common manifestations of hypoglycemia. Insufficient glucose supply to the brain (neuroglycopenia) can lead to confusion, difficulty with concentration, irritability, hallucinations, focal impairments like hemiplegia, and, in severe cases, coma and death. Anesthesia reaction (Choice A) is less likely in this scenario as the patient is already on the second postoperative day. Hyperglycemia (Choice B) is unlikely given the patient's symptoms and history of not eating. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) typically presents with hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis, which are not consistent with the patient's current symptoms of confusion and shakiness.

5. A patient with Meningitis is being treated with Vancomycin intravenously 3 times per day. The nurse notes that the urine output during the last 8 hours was 200mL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Check the patient's last BUN levels
• B. Ask the patient to increase their fluid intake
• C. Ask the physician to order a diuretic
• D. Notify the physician of this finding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin is a nephrotoxic drug and can cause impaired renal perfusion, which would lead to decreased urine output. This is a serious adverse effect that should be promptly reported to the physician. Checking the patient's last BUN levels (Choice A) may provide additional information but does not address the urgency of the situation. Asking the patient to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the cause is related to Vancomycin toxicity. Ordering a diuretic (Choice C) without physician evaluation can exacerbate the issue, making notifying the physician (Choice D) the most critical action to take.

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