NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions
1. After a bronchoscopy, what is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a chronic cough?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 80 to 90 degrees.
- B. Keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns.
- C. Place the patient on bed rest for at least 4 hours after bronchoscopy.
- D. Notify the health care provider about blood-tinged mucus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to keep the patient NPO until the gag reflex returns after a bronchoscopy. This is important because a local anesthetic is used during the procedure to suppress the gag and cough reflexes. Monitoring the return of these reflexes helps prevent the risk of aspiration and ensures the patient can safely resume oral intake. While blood-tinged mucus can occur after bronchoscopy, it is a common occurrence and not a cause for immediate concern. Placing the patient on bed rest for an extended period is unnecessary, and elevating the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position is not specifically required post-bronchoscopy.
2. After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?
- A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
- B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
- C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
- D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.
3. A patient with idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH) is receiving nifedipine (Procardia). Which assessment would best indicate to the nurse that the patient's condition is improving?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) is less than 140/90 mm Hg.
- B. Patient reports decreased exertional dyspnea
- C. Heart rate is between 60 and 100 beats/minute
- D. Patient's chest x-ray indicates clear lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is for the patient to report decreased exertional dyspnea. In idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension (IPAH), exertional dyspnea is a significant symptom indicating disease severity. Improvement in this symptom suggests that the medication, nifedipine, is effective in managing the condition. While nifedipine can affect blood pressure (choice A) and heart rate (choice C), these parameters are not specific indicators for monitoring IPAH improvement. Choice D, clear lung fields on the chest x-ray, does not directly correlate with the effectiveness of therapy for IPAH. Therefore, the most relevant assessment to monitor improvement in a patient with IPAH receiving nifedipine is a decrease in exertional dyspnea.
4. Which question should the nurse ask the parents of a child suspected of having glomerulonephritis?
- A. Did your child fall off a bike onto the handlebars?
- B. Has the child had persistent nausea and vomiting?
- C. Has the child been itching or had a rash anytime in the last week?
- D. Has the child had a sore throat or a throat infection in the last few weeks?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Glomerulonephritis refers to a group of kidney disorders characterized by inflammatory injury in the glomerulus. Group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection is a common cause of glomerulonephritis. Children with glomerulonephritis often develop symptoms after a throat infection caused by streptococcal bacteria. Therefore, asking about a sore throat or throat infection in the last few weeks is crucial to assess the possible link to glomerulonephritis. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with the pathophysiology of glomerulonephritis. Asking about falling off a bike, nausea and vomiting, or itching and rash do not provide relevant information for assessing glomerulonephritis in this context.
5. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
- A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
- C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
- D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.
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