a nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect which of the following clinical signs would most likel
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for an infant who has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain due to fluid accumulation is associated with heart failure and congenital heart defects. When the heart is unable to circulate blood normally, the kidneys receive less blood, leading to reduced fluid filtration into the urine. The excess fluid accumulates in various body parts such as the lungs, liver, eyes, and sometimes in the legs. Slow pulse rate (Choice A) is less likely as infants with heart failure typically present with tachycardia due to the body compensating for decreased cardiac output. Decreased systolic pressure (Choice C) is also less likely as heart failure typically leads to increased blood pressure as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion. Irregular white blood cell (WBC) values (Choice D) are not directly associated with congenital heart defects unless there is an underlying infection or inflammatory process.

2. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.

3. Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.

4. Your patient has been diagnosed with acute bronchitis. You should expect that all of the following will be ordered EXCEPT:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of acute bronchitis, antibiotics are not typically prescribed unless there is a confirmed bacterial infection. Acute bronchitis is usually caused by a virus, so antibiotics are not effective in treating it. The primary focus is on symptom management and supportive care. Increased fluid intake helps keep the airway moist and liquefy secretions, aiding in their removal. Cough medications can help relieve cough symptoms. The use of a vaporizer can help moisten the air, making breathing more comfortable for the patient. It is crucial to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes of respiratory infections to avoid unnecessary antibiotic use and prevent antibiotic resistance. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Antibiotics.' Increased fluid intake, cough medications, and the use of a vaporizer are commonly recommended for managing symptoms and improving comfort in patients with acute bronchitis.

5. The patient in the emergency room has a history of alprazolam (Xanax) abuse and abruptly stopped taking Xanax about 24 hours ago. He presents with visible tremors, pacing, fear, impaired concentration, and memory. Which intervention takes priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 1-4 day period after Xanax withdrawal is critical as it poses the highest risk of life-threatening seizures. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and sudden cessation can lead to severe withdrawal symptoms. The patient's visible tremors, fear, pacing, and cognitive impairment indicate a state of heightened distress and potential seizure risk. Placing the patient on a stretcher with raised bed rails is essential for seizure precautions, ensuring safety and preventing injury during a potential seizure. Offering water and food, reassuring the patient, or informing the physician about Xanax withdrawal are not immediate priorities compared to managing the risk of seizures in this high-risk situation.

Similar Questions

A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?
The nurse is caring for a post-surgical client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis. Which intervention is an effective preventive measure?
A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for a liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select one that doesn't apply.
Rhogam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.
A client is being instructed in the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements from the nurse indicates correct teaching about using this device?

Access More Features

NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses