a nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect which of the following clinical signs would most likel
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NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for an infant who has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain due to fluid accumulation is associated with heart failure and congenital heart defects. When the heart is unable to circulate blood normally, the kidneys receive less blood, leading to reduced fluid filtration into the urine. The excess fluid accumulates in various body parts such as the lungs, liver, eyes, and sometimes in the legs. Slow pulse rate (Choice A) is less likely as infants with heart failure typically present with tachycardia due to the body compensating for decreased cardiac output. Decreased systolic pressure (Choice C) is also less likely as heart failure typically leads to increased blood pressure as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion. Irregular white blood cell (WBC) values (Choice D) are not directly associated with congenital heart defects unless there is an underlying infection or inflammatory process.

2. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

3. The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old on admission to the burn unit. One assessment parameter that will indicate that the child has adequate fluid replacement is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a child of this age, this is adequate output, yet does not suggest overload. Disruption of sodium-ATPase activity presumably causes an intracellular sodium shift which contributes to hypovolemia and cellular edema. Heat injury also initiates the release of inflammatory and vasoactive mediators. These mediators are responsible for local vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilation, and increased transcapillary permeability. Increase in transcapillary permeability results in a rapid transfer of water, inorganic solutes, and plasma proteins between the intravascular and interstitial spaces.

4. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.

5. A female patient with atrial fibrillation has the following lab results: Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, a platelet count of 150,000, an INR of 2.5, and potassium of 2.7 mEq/L. Which result is critical and should be reported to the physician immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The critical lab result that should be reported to the physician immediately in this case is the potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. A potassium imbalance, especially in a patient with a history of dysrhythmia like atrial fibrillation, can be life-threatening and lead to cardiac distress. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can predispose the patient to dangerous arrhythmias, including worsening atrial fibrillation. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dl, platelet count of 150,000, and an INR of 2.5 are within acceptable ranges and not as immediately concerning as a low potassium level in this clinical context.

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