Nursing Elites

1. When a mother is inquiring about her child's ability to potty train, what is the most critical aspect of toilet training?

• A. The age of the child
• B. The child's ability to understand instructions
• C. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child
• D. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical aspect of toilet training is the overall mental and physical abilities of the child. While age can play a role, it is not the sole determining factor. Understanding instructions is important but may not be the most critical aspect. Consistent attempts with positive reinforcement can be helpful, but without considering the child's abilities, it may not lead to successful potty training.

2. The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child for symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which assessment finding should lead the nurse to question the diagnosis?

• A. Inability to react appropriately to social cues
• B. Engages in repetitive behaviors
• C. Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age
• D. Displays self-destructive behavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Comprehends language well beyond the complexity expected for age.' Children with autism spectrum disorder typically struggle with language and communication skills, so comprehending language well beyond their age level would not align with the diagnosis of ASD. This finding could indicate other developmental strengths or delays. Choices A, B, and D are more commonly associated with ASD - the inability to react appropriately to social cues, engaging in repetitive behaviors, and displaying self-destructive behavior are typical manifestations of autism spectrum disorder.

3. Which of the following is an example of restorative care?

• A. A nurse teaches a new mother how to breastfeed her infant
• B. A nurse helps a client with developing a bladder-retraining program
• C. A nurse places an allergy wristband on a client's wrist to notify other providers of potential reactions
• D. A nurse contacts the family of a client to tell them he will be out of surgery soon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restorative care involves assisting clients in regaining or maintaining their highest possible level of function. This type of care focuses on promoting self-care and independence by helping clients perform activities that enhance their functional abilities. In this scenario, a nurse who assists a client with developing a bladder-retraining program is engaging in restorative care by helping the client regain bladder function. Choices A, C, and D do not represent restorative care. Teaching a new mother how to breastfeed her infant (Choice A) is an example of educative care, placing an allergy wristband (Choice C) is a safety measure, and contacting a client's family to update them on surgery (Choice D) is related to communication and support, not restorative care.

4. While caring for a client who has just come from surgery and is in the recovery room with an endotracheal tube in place, the nurse deflates the cuff on the tube and removes it. The client sits up in bed, grasps his throat, and begins to make wheezing sounds. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this situation?

• A. The client is choking on part of the tube
• B. The client has anxiety
• C. The client is having a laryngospasm
• D. The client is having a normal response from anesthesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, some clients may experience a laryngospasm during emergence from anesthesia. A laryngospasm can lead to the closure of the laryngeal opening due to spasm of the vocal cords. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of wheezing and throat grasping are indicative of a laryngospasm rather than choking on the tube, anxiety, or a normal response from anesthesia. The nurse should act promptly to open the airway to aid breathing and consider administering muscle relaxants as necessary.

5. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

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