Nursing Elites

1. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Delirium
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Hypotension
• D. Pinpoint rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

2. The client is being educated about depression by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. ''All elderly individuals experience depression occasionally.''
• B. ''I'm relieved that I will improve within 2 or 3 days.''
• C. ''I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause.''
• D. ''Reducing stress in my life will alleviate the depression.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer, 'I never realized depression could occur without a specific cause,' demonstrates an understanding that depression can arise without a clear trigger, indicating effective teaching. Choice A is incorrect because not all elderly individuals experience depression, and this statement doesn't show understanding. Choice B is incorrect as it reflects a misconception about the quick resolution of depression. Choice D is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between stress reduction and depression resolution.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. While taking a history, the client tells the nurse he was admitted for the same thing twice before, the last time just 3 months ago. The nurse would anticipate the healthcare provider ordering:

• A. Pulmonary embolectomy
• B. Vena caval interruption
• C. Increasing the coumadin therapy to achieve an INR of 3-4
• D. Thrombolytic therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with a history of recurrent pulmonary embolism or contraindications to heparin, vena caval interruption may be necessary. Vena caval interruption involves placing a filter device in the inferior vena cava to prevent clots from traveling to the pulmonary circulation. Pulmonary embolectomy is a surgical procedure to remove a clot from the pulmonary artery, which is usually considered in severe or life-threatening cases. Increasing coumadin therapy to achieve a higher INR may be an option but vena caval interruption would be more appropriate in this scenario. Thrombolytic therapy is used in acute cases of pulmonary embolism to dissolve the clot rapidly, but in a recurrent case with contraindications to anticoagulants, vena caval interruption would be a preferred intervention.

4. A nurse is performing an end-of-shift count of narcotics kept in the locked cabinet. The narcotic log states there should be 26 oxycodone pills left, but there are only 24 in the drawer. What is the first action of the nurse?

• A. Perform the count again
• B. Contact the pharmacy to determine if the narcotic log is incorrect
• C. Check with the last nurse to sign out narcotics from the system
• D. Notify the house supervisor that narcotic medications are missing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take in this situation is to perform the count again. This step is crucial to ensure there was no miscount during the initial check. By verifying the count, the nurse can confirm if there is indeed a discrepancy in the number of oxycodone pills. Contacting the pharmacy, checking with the last nurse, or notifying the house supervisor should only be considered after ensuring the count is accurate. It's important to rule out any human error before escalating the issue to others.

5. Teresa is an 84-year-old with stage 4 ovarian cancer who has been admitted for a bowel obstruction. She recently stated that she has decided that she doesn't want any further aggressive care and is requesting to be placed under hospice care. Her husband and daughter are supportive of her decision. She spoke with her oncologist about it, and he stated that he did not agree and wrote orders on her chart for chemotherapy. What would be the best first response to this situation?

• A. Give the patient a list of other oncologists
• B. Tell the family to report the doctor to the state quality board
• C. Notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy
• D. Give the patient hospice information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient has the right to refuse any treatment, and the doctor should be notified that the orders on the chart cannot be performed, with appropriate documentation. In this situation, the best first response is to notify the doctor that the patient refuses the chemotherapy. This step ensures that the patient's wishes are respected and that inappropriate treatments are not administered. It also opens up a dialogue with the oncologist, giving him the opportunity to understand the patient's perspective and potentially support her decision. Providing hospice information is a good follow-up step after addressing the immediate issue of refusing chemotherapy, as it allows the patient to initiate her own hospice evaluation if desired. Giving the patient a list of other oncologists or telling the family to report the doctor to the state quality board are not appropriate initial responses and may not align with the patient's wishes or autonomy.

Similar Questions