a physician has administered ketamine to a client who is preparing to undergo general anesthesia which of the following side effects should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX RN Questions

1. A client has been administered ketamine by a physician in preparation for general anesthesia. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ketamine is an anesthetic that induces dissociation and lack of awareness in a client. It can be used before general anesthesia or during short procedures for sedation. Ketamine may lead to side effects such as delirium, hallucinations, hypertension, and respiratory depression. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for delirium, as it is a potential side effect associated with ketamine use. Muscle rigidity, hypotension, and pinpoint rash are not typically attributed to ketamine administration and are less likely to occur in this scenario.

2. Who owns a patient's x-rays?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: X-rays are typically owned by the facility that conducts the procedure, not the patient or the doctor. The facility that performs the procedure is responsible for maintaining and storing the x-rays as part of the patient's medical records. The patient does not own the x-rays since they are part of their medical record and not a physical possession. The doctor also does not own the x-rays as they are generated as a result of the medical procedure conducted at the facility, making choice C the correct answer.

3. All of the following are essential components of supervision EXCEPT:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Supervision in nursing requires key components to ensure effective management. Tasks to be delegated or supervised must align with the nurse's scope of practice to maintain safety and quality care. Adequate time for staff assignment development is essential for efficient workflow. Policies governing nursing practice provide a framework for safe and standardized care. However, the statement 'The necessary tasks require repeated assessments' is not an essential component of supervision. Tasks should be clear, achievable, and not necessitate repeated assessments, as this would impede delegation and efficient completion. Repeated assessments may indicate unclear task delegation or inadequate initial assessment, which should be avoided in effective supervision.

4. Which of these devices is considered a protective device, rather than a restraint?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mitten on the hands to prevent scratching is considered a protective device because its primary purpose is to protect the patient from harming themselves by scratching. It does not restrict the patient's movement. Choice B, a mitten on the hands to prevent the person from pulling their IV out, is considered a restraint as it limits the patient's movement. Choice C, a side rail to prevent the patient from falling, is also a protective device as it aims to keep the patient safe by providing support and preventing falls. Choice D, a soft wrist restraint to prevent the patient from pulling their IV tubing, is a type of restraint as it restricts the patient's movement to prevent them from interfering with medical equipment.

5. How can the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients be prevented?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Bed alarms, chair alarms, and door alarms are all effective measures to prevent the dangers associated with wandering in Alzheimer's disease patients. These alarms can alert caregivers when a patient tries to leave a designated area, helping to keep them safe. It is crucial to respond promptly to these alarms to ensure the patient's safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each type of alarm plays a vital role in a comprehensive wandering prevention strategy.

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