Nursing Elites

1. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?

• A. Fixed delusion
• B. Magical thinking
• C. Pathological regression
• D. Command hallucination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.

2. The nurse who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Get the guardian's permission to give the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the supervisor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is not to administer the medication and document the reason. Since the adolescent client is a minor, parental or guardian consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. Option A, reviewing the chart for a signed consent for medication administration, is not the appropriate action in this situation as the focus is on parental consent for the client. Option B is incorrect because obtaining the health care provider's permission does not replace the need for parental consent for a minor. Option D, completing an incident report and notifying the supervisor, is unnecessary as there is no adverse event to report; the key concern is the lack of parental consent for medication administration.

3. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and compare the reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings for accuracy.
• B. Contact the health care provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort during blood pressure measurement.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg is to compare the current reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison helps determine whether the current reading is abnormal for the client. Option A, which involves informing the client that the blood pressure is high and comparing it with the previous readings, is appropriate as it educates the client and aids in accurate assessment. Option B, contacting the health care provider for medication, is premature without further assessment. Option C, replacing the cuff with a larger one, is incorrect as it may affect the accuracy of the blood pressure measurement and is not a standard practice for managing high blood pressure readings.

4. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

5. When a client with newly diagnosed chronic bronchitis tells the home health nurse about continuing to smoke 1 or 2 cigarettes a day and not doing the prescribed pulmonary physiotherapy exercises, which response by the nurse is best?

• A. ''Tell me about your typical day before you were diagnosed with chronic lung disease.''
• B. ''Smoking and not doing the exercises will make your lung disease continue to get worse.''
• C. 'I can't make you stop doing what you are doing, and it's your choice to be sick or well.''
• D. ''Your shortness of breath is probably because of your smoking and not doing the exercises.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asking the client to describe a typical day is the best response. More data are needed about the client's usual activities of daily living so that the plan can be adapted to the client's preferences. The statement indicating that smoking and not doing the pulmonary exercises will allow the lung disease to progress is probably not news to the client and does not help in determining factors that might be contributing to nonadherence. The statement that the nurse cannot stop the client's behaviors indicates that the client is to blame and will place the client on the defensive. The statement that the client's dyspnea is caused by smoking and not doing the pulmonary exercises places the client on the defensive and will decrease trust, preventing the nurse from obtaining more information about why the client is nonadherent with the treatment plan.

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