Nursing Elites

1. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?

• A. Fixed delusion
• B. Magical thinking
• C. Pathological regression
• D. Command hallucination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.

2. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?

• A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
• B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
• C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
• D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.

3. The nurse is assessing a young client who presents with recurrent gastrointestinal disorders. On further assessment, the nurse learns that the client is experiencing job-related pressures. Which is the most important nursing intervention for this client?

• A. Educate the client on managing stress.
• B. Teach the client to maintain a balanced diet.
• C. Instruct the client to have regular health checkups.
• D. Ask the client to use sunscreen when working outdoors.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention for a client experiencing job-related pressures and recurrent gastrointestinal disorders is to educate the client on managing stress. Stress is a lifestyle risk factor that can impact both mental health and physical well-being. It is associated with various illnesses, including gastrointestinal disorders. Teaching the client to maintain a balanced diet is important for preventive care and health promotion but is not the priority in this scenario. While instructing the client to have regular health checkups is essential for overall health maintenance, addressing the root cause of stress is crucial in this case. Asking the client to use sunscreen when working outdoors is important for sun protection and skin cancer prevention but not directly related to the client's job-related stress and gastrointestinal issues.

4. Which of the following is an example of an opioid?

• A. Mescaline
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Opioids are a type of drug classified as narcotics. Nurses working with clients with substance abuse issues often encounter opioids. Opioids have the potential for addiction. Examples of opioids include methadone, codeine, morphine, and hydromorphone. Mescaline (Choice A) is a hallucinogen, not an opioid. Diazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety and other conditions, not an opioid. Phenobarbital (Choice C) is a barbiturate used to treat seizures and insomnia, not an opioid.

5. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

• A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
• B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
• C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
• D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

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