NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
- A. Confrontation
- B. Open communication
- C. Health teaching about childrearing
- D. Validation of the child's physical status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.
2. Which statement by an 8-year-old girl, who was just admitted to the hospital, needs to be explored?
- A. ''Wow! This hospital has bright colors.''
- B. ''Is my mother allowed to visit me tonight?'
- C. ''Those boys are so cute. I hope their room is next to mine!'
- D. ''I'm scared about being here. Can you stay with me awhile?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An 8-year-old child showing a strong attraction to boys at this age may raise concerns about precocious sexual behavior or exposure to inappropriate sexual content, potentially signaling the need to investigate for possible sexual abuse. It is important to explore this statement further. Choice A, expressing admiration for bright colors, is a common behavior for children of this age and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice B, inquiring about the mother's visit, is a typical concern for a hospitalized child seeking comfort and support. Choice D, expressing fear and seeking reassurance from the nurse, is also a normal reaction for an 8-year-old in a new and possibly intimidating environment. However, the statement in Choice C stands out as it deviates from age-appropriate behavior and warrants further exploration to ensure the child's safety and well-being.
3. What is the primary purpose served when an individual takes action to reduce anxiety?
- A. Reduction of tension
- B. Denial of the situation
- C. Avoidance of physical discomfort
- D. Resolution in decision-making
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary purpose of taking action to reduce anxiety is to alleviate emotional tension and prevent the exacerbation of anxiety symptoms. By reducing tension, anxiety levels decrease, leading to a sense of comfort, safety, and security. Denial of the situation is not the goal when addressing anxiety; rather, acknowledging and managing it is crucial. While physical discomfort may accompany anxiety, the focus is on alleviating the emotional aspect to mitigate physical manifestations. Although mild anxiety can sometimes improve decision-making skills, higher levels of anxiety typically impede cognitive functions, making resolution in decision-making less likely.
4. Which of the following is an example of non-reversible dementia?
- A. Pick's disease
- B. Syphilis
- C. Encephalopathy
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Non-reversible dementia refers to a condition where individuals experience permanent and often progressive cognitive decline. Pick's disease is a type of non-reversible dementia characterized by changes in personality, behavior, and language difficulties. Syphilis (Choice B) is a reversible cause of dementia that can be treated with antibiotics. Encephalopathy (Choice C) is a broad term for brain dysfunction that can be reversible or irreversible depending on the cause. Hyperthyroidism (Choice D) can lead to cognitive impairment but is reversible with appropriate treatment. Therefore, Pick's disease is the correct example of non-reversible dementia among the options provided.
5. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?
- A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
- B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
- C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
- D. Lack of menstruation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.
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