NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Questions
1. Which approach would be most appropriate for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy?
- A. Confrontation
- B. Open communication
- C. Health teaching about childrearing
- D. Validation of the child's physical status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach for the involved parent of a child diagnosed with Munchausen syndrome by proxy is open communication. Maintaining open communication is crucial in building a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Confrontation may cause the parent to become defensive and hinder effective communication. Health teaching about childrearing may not be well-received at this point as the parent may not be ready for it. Validation of the child's physical status may inadvertently reinforce the parent's behavior by focusing solely on physical symptoms rather than addressing the underlying issues.
2. The client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns is at risk of infection. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?
- A. Administration of plasma expanders
- B. Use of careful handwashing technique
- C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
- D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is the use of careful handwashing technique. Proper handwashing is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of infectious organisms. Option A, administration of plasma expanders, addresses hypovolemia in burn patients but does not directly decrease the risk of infection. Option C, application of a topical antibacterial cream, is beneficial but not as effective as proper handwashing in preventing infection. Option D, limiting visitors, may help reduce the risk of exposure to pathogens but is not as critical as ensuring healthcare providers maintain strict hand hygiene, which is the cornerstone of infection control in any healthcare setting.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
4. A man who is admitted for a suicide attempt after the death of his child says, 'I hear my son telling me to come over to the other side.' Which psychotic symptom is the client experiencing?
- A. Fixed delusion
- B. Magical thinking
- C. Pathological regression
- D. Command hallucination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is experiencing a command hallucination. Command hallucinations involve auditory messages instructing harm to self or others, and giving an identity to the hallucinated voice increases the risk of compliance. A fixed delusion is a false belief held to be true despite evidence to the contrary. Magical thinking involves believing that thoughts can influence events, commonly seen in young children. Pathological regression refers to reverting to a previous developmental stage, not applicable in this scenario.
5. In completing a client's preoperative routine, the nurse finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is the responsibility of the surgeon to explain the procedure to the client and obtain the client's signature on the permit. While the nurse can witness the client's signature on the permit, the procedure must first be explained by the healthcare provider or surgeon, including addressing the client's questions. Therefore, informing the surgeon is the priority to ensure proper communication and consent before the surgery. Answering the client's questions about the surgery (Choice B) may not provide accurate information and could lead to misunderstanding. Reassuring the client (Choice D) is important, but obtaining proper consent and addressing concerns should come first. Witnessing the client's signature (Choice A) is not sufficient if the client has unanswered questions and the permit is not signed.
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