Nursing Elites

1. Your patient has been confused for years. Your patient can be best described as having a chronic ___________ disorder.

• A. physical
• B. psychotic
• C. thinking
• D. palliative

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who experience long-term confusion often have a chronic thinking, or cognitive, disorder. Alzheimer's disease is a prime example of a disorder that results in prolonged confusion and memory loss. Choice A, 'physical', is incorrect as the issue described is related to cognitive functioning, not physical health. Choice B, 'psychotic', refers to a severe mental disorder characterized by a loss of contact with reality, which is not the primary issue presented in the scenario. Choice D, 'palliative', is not relevant as it pertains to specialized medical care for individuals with serious illnesses, focusing on providing relief from symptoms and stress rather than managing chronic confusion.

2. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include when teaching a client with limited mobility strategies to prevent venous thrombosis?

• A. Perform cough and deep breathing exercises hourly.
• B. Turn from side to side in bed at least every 2 hours.
• C. Dorsiflex and plantarflex the feet 10 times each hour
• D. Drink approximately 4 ounces of water every hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, the nurse should instruct the client to perform dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises regularly. These exercises help promote venous return and prevent venous thrombus formation. Options A, B, and D are beneficial in managing other complications of immobility, such as atelectasis and pressure ulcers, but they are less effective in preventing venous thrombosis compared to dorsiflexion and plantar flexion exercises.

3. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?

• A. Galactorrhea
• B. Gynecomastia
• C. Amenorrhea
• D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.

4. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

• A. Tell me more about what's bothering you.'
• B. Weren't you told about the need for the medication?'
• C. I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
• D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

5. What is the nurse's priority action when a client receiving a unit of packed red blood cells experiences tingling in the fingers and headache?

• A. Call the health care provider (HCP).
• B. Stop the transfusion.
• C. Slow the infusion rate.
• D. Assess the intravenous (IV) site for infiltration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving a packed red blood cell transfusion experiences tingling in the fingers and headache, these symptoms may indicate an adverse reaction to the transfusion. The nurse's priority action is to immediately stop the transfusion and initiate a normal saline infusion at a keep vein open (KVO) rate. This helps maintain the client's vein patency while addressing the adverse reactions. After stopping the transfusion and initiating the saline infusion, the nurse should assess the client, including vital signs evaluation. Subsequently, the healthcare provider should be notified. Calling the healthcare provider is important, but it should be done after the immediate action of stopping the transfusion. Slowing the infusion rate is not appropriate during a suspected transfusion reaction as it can exacerbate the adverse effects. Assessing the IV site for infiltration is a routine nursing intervention and is not the priority when managing a potential adverse reaction to a blood transfusion.

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