Nursing Elites

1. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?

• A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
• B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
• C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
• D. The nurse discusses the client's health history

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.

2. Which of these statements best describes the characteristics of an effective reward feedback system?

• A. Specific feedback is given as close to the event as possible
• B. Staff is given feedback in equal amounts over time
• C. Positive statements precede negative statements
• D. Performance goals should be higher than what is attainable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that specific feedback should be given as close to the event as possible in an effective reward feedback system. This is important because feedback is most useful when provided immediately. Giving feedback promptly reinforces positive behavior and helps in modifying problem behaviors. Providing feedback close to the event helps in ensuring that standards are clearly understood and can be met. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because staff should not be given feedback in equal amounts over time, positive statements do not necessarily have to precede negative statements, and setting performance goals higher than what is attainable can lead to demotivation and decreased performance.

3. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

• A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
• B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
• C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
• D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.

4. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

• A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
• B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
• C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
• D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

5. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

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