Nursing Elites

1. Which action represents the evaluation stage of the plan of care?

• A. The nurse assigns a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Skin Integrity related to diminished skin circulation
• B. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs and asks about symptoms
• C. The nurse determines that the client is not meeting his set outcomes and makes revisions
• D. The nurse discusses the client's health history

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The evaluation stage of the nursing process involves reviewing the assessments, diagnoses, and interventions given to the client and then determining if the client is meeting expected outcomes. In this scenario, the nurse is assessing whether the client is meeting the outcomes set for their care plan and making revisions as needed. Choice A is incorrect as assigning a nursing diagnosis is part of the nursing diagnosis phase, not the evaluation phase. Choice B represents the assessment phase of the nursing process, not the evaluation phase. Choice D involves discussing the client's health history, which is more aligned with the assessment phase rather than the evaluation phase.

2. Which of the following conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level?

• A. Rhabdomyolysis
• B. Digitalis toxicity
• C. Glomerulonephritis
• D. All answers are correct

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum creatinine level may be warranted in conditions that can affect renal function or cause muscle breakdown. Rhabdomyolysis, characterized by muscle injury and breakdown, can lead to elevated creatinine levels due to the release of creatinine from muscles. Digitalis toxicity can impair renal function, leading to a need for monitoring creatinine levels. Glomerulonephritis, an inflammatory condition affecting the kidney's filtering units, can also impact renal function and require assessment of creatinine levels. Therefore, all the provided conditions may warrant a serum creatinine level to assess renal function and muscle breakdown.

3. A client is having blood tests and has an elevated lymphocyte level. Based on knowledge of cellular components, what does the nurse know about these cells?

• A. Contain histamine and provide protection during allergic reactions
• B. Are involved in phagocytosis
• C. Provide protection and immunity against foreign substances
• D. Carry hemoglobin and oxygen to body tissues

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cells that play a crucial role in supporting the body's immune system. They are responsible for producing substances that protect the body against infections and foreign substances that could potentially harm the client. Lymphocytes consist of two main types: T cells, which are produced in the thymus, and B cells, which are produced in the lymphatic tissue. Choice A is incorrect because histamine is mainly associated with basophils and mast cells, not lymphocytes. Choice B is incorrect as phagocytosis is a function of other white blood cells such as neutrophils and macrophages. Choice D is also incorrect as carrying hemoglobin and oxygen is a function of red blood cells, not lymphocytes.

4. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

5. Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for:

• A. 10 years
• B. Forever
• C. Until the age of majority
• D. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Forever.' Maintaining patients' charts indefinitely ensures comprehensive legal protection by having all relevant information available in case of litigation or if patient history needs to be referenced in the future. Choice A, '10 years,' may not be sufficient to cover the entire period within which legal issues may arise. Choice C, 'Until the age of majority,' is not ideal as legal matters may extend beyond this age limit. Choice D, '2 years after the patient was last seen in the office,' is inadequate as legal actions can occur beyond this timeframe, necessitating the need for long-term retention of patient charts.

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