NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions
1. A man is prescribed lithium to treat bipolar disorder. The nurse is most concerned about lithium toxicity when he notices which of these assessment findings?
- A. The patient states he had a manic episode a week ago
- B. The patient states he has been having diarrhea every day
- C. The patient presents as severely depressed
- D. The patient has a rash and pruritus on his arms and legs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the patient states he has been having diarrhea every day. Persistent diarrhea can lead to dehydration, which can increase the risk of lithium toxicity. The other options, such as a manic episode, severe depression, or rash and pruritus, are not directly associated with an increased risk of lithium toxicity.
2. The healthcare professional is taking the health history of a patient being treated for sickle cell disease. After being told the patient has severe generalized pain, the healthcare professional expects to note which assessment finding?
- A. Severe and persistent diarrhea
- B. Intense pain in the toe
- C. Yellow-tinged sclera
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In patients with sickle cell disease, severe generalized pain can be associated with vaso-occlusive crises, but yellow-tinged sclera is a common clinical finding related to sickle cell disease. This yellowing of the sclera, known as jaundice, occurs due to the release of bilirubin from damaged or destroyed red blood cells. Severe and persistent diarrhea is not a typical assessment finding in sickle cell disease. Intense pain in the toe may be associated with vaso-occlusive crisis but is not the expected assessment finding in this scenario. Headache is a common symptom in many conditions but is not specifically related to the assessment finding expected in a patient with sickle cell disease presenting with severe generalized pain.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?
- A. What time did you first notice symptoms consistently appearing?
- B. Have you been taking any blood thinners such as heparin, lovenox, or warfarin?
- C. Have you had another stroke or head trauma in the previous 3 months?
- D. Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.
4. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
- A. Bowel sounds are present.
- B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
- C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
- D. Abdominal pain is decreased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.
5. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation?
- A. Assist the doctor while he sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand.
- B. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches.
- C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room.
- D. Tell the patient to go to the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Penetrating wounds that leave an object behind may have damaged important blood vessels. Removing the object may lead to significant bleeding. The correct approach is to gently wrap the wound with the object in place to help control bleeding and prevent further injury. The patient should be taken promptly to the nearest emergency room where healthcare professionals can safely and appropriately remove the object and provide necessary treatment. Choice A is incorrect because removing the pencil without proper medical evaluation can worsen the injury. Choice B is incorrect because pulling out the object can cause additional damage and bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because giving aspirin without knowing the extent of the injury and causing potential drug interactions can be harmful.
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