Nursing Elites

1. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?

• A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
• B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
• C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
• D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.

2. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

3. Which gland of the endocrine system secretes a hormone that assists with the sleep/wake cycle?

• A. Pituitary
• B. Pineal
• C. Pancreas
• D. Hypothalamus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the Pineal gland. The Pineal gland, located in the brain, secretes melatonin, which plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep/wake cycle in response to exposure to light. The Pituitary gland (Choice A) secretes various hormones but not specifically related to the sleep/wake cycle. The Pancreas (Choice C) secretes insulin and digestive enzymes, not hormones related to the sleep/wake cycle. The Hypothalamus (Choice D) is involved in regulating many bodily functions, including hormone secretion, but it does not directly secrete the hormone that regulates the sleep/wake cycle.

4. What is the proper personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen?

• A. Gloves and face mask
• B. Level Three Biocontainment uniforms
• C. Eye protection and shoe covers
• D. Splash shield and face mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When collecting a sputum specimen, it is crucial to protect against potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. The best personal protective equipment for this task includes gloves and a face mask. Gloves help prevent the spread of contaminants through hand contact, while a face mask protects the respiratory tract from inhaling infectious agents. Choice B, Level Three Biocontainment uniforms, is excessive and unnecessary for routine sputum specimen collection. Choice C, eye protection and shoe covers, does not address the specific risks associated with sputum collection. Choice D, splash shield and face mask, provides additional protection that is not typically required for sputum specimen collection, making it less appropriate than gloves and a face mask.

5. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

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