Nursing Elites

1. A client who complains of nausea and seems anxious is admitted to the nursing unit. The nurse should take which of the following actions regarding completion of the admission interview?

• A. Help the client to get settled and conduct the interview the next morning when the client is rested
• B. Conduct the interview immediately, directing the majority of the questions to the client
• C. Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns
• D. Ask the charge nurse to interview the client while the admitting nurse calls the doctor for anti-nausea and anti-anxiety medication

Correct answer: Conduct the interview as soon as uninterrupted time is available to address the client's concerns

Rationale: When dealing with a client who is experiencing nausea and anxiety, it is important to promptly conduct the admission interview to address their concerns. This allows for the collection of accurate data while attending to the client's immediate needs. Delaying the interview until the next morning (Choice A) may not be in the best interest of the client as timely assessment and intervention are essential. Directing questions to the client's spouse (Choice B) may not provide accurate information from the client themselves. Asking another nurse to conduct the interview while administering medications (Choice D) does not prioritize building a therapeutic relationship with the client, which is crucial in addressing their concerns and providing holistic care.

2. Which of the following activities would the nurse perform during the diagnosing phase of the nursing process? Select all that apply.

• A. Collect and organize client information
• B. Analyze data
• C. Identify problems, risks, and client strengths
• D. Develop nursing diagnoses

Correct answer: B: Analyze data

Rationale: During the diagnosing phase of the nursing process, the nurse analyzes the collected data to identify problems, risks, and client strengths, which then leads to developing nursing diagnoses. Collecting and organizing client information is part of the assessment phase, where data is gathered. Developing nursing diagnoses comes after data analysis in the diagnosing phase. Goal setting is a component of the planning phase, which follows the diagnosing phase.

3. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A: PT/INR

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a dry heat application?

• A. Dry heat is more likely to cause burns than moist heat
• B. Dry heat does not penetrate deeply into the tissues
• C. Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly
• D. Dry heat can quickly cause skin breakdown

Correct answer: C: Dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly

Rationale: The correct answer is that dry heat causes the skin to dry out more quickly. When comparing dry and moist heat applications, dry heat is less likely to cause burns and skin breakdown. However, one of the disadvantages of dry heat is that it does not penetrate deeply into the tissues and may lead to faster drying out of the skin. This can have negative effects on skin integrity and overall comfort during therapy. Choice A is incorrect because dry heat is less likely to cause burns than moist heat. Choice B is incorrect as dry heat may not penetrate deeply into tissues. Choice D is incorrect as dry heat is less likely to cause skin breakdown compared to moist heat.

5. Which of the following is classified as a prerenal condition that affects urinary elimination?

• A. Nephrotoxic medications
• B. Pericardial tamponade
• C. Neurogenic bladder
• D. Polycystic kidney disease

Correct answer: Pericardial tamponade

Rationale: A prerenal condition is one that causes reduced urinary elimination by affecting the blood flow to the kidneys. Pericardial tamponade is a condition that impacts the heart's ability to pump sufficient blood, leading to decreased blood flow to vital organs such as the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow to the kidneys can result in decreased urine production. The other choices, such as nephrotoxic medications, neurogenic bladder, and polycystic kidney disease, do not primarily affect the blood flow to the kidneys and are not classified as prerenal conditions that impact urinary elimination.

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