Nursing Elites

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

3. A client's intake and output are being calculated by a nurse. During the last shift, the client consumed � cup of gelatin, a skinless chicken breast, 1 cup of green beans, and 300 cc of water. The client also urinated 250 cc and had 2 bowel movements. What is this client's intake and output for this shift?

• A. 420 cc intake, 250 cc output
• B. 300 cc intake, 250 cc output
• C. 550 cc intake, 550 cc output
• D. 300 cc intake, 550 cc output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 420 cc intake and 250 cc output for this shift. To calculate the intake, � cup of gelatin (approximately 120 cc) and 300 cc of water should be added together, resulting in 420 cc. Food intake like the chicken breast and green beans is not converted to cc's but may be documented for hospital protocol. Output includes urine (250 cc in this case) and other forms like vomit, diarrhea, or gastric suction. Bowel movements are not converted to cc's, but the nurse may need to document the number of stools passed. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the intake and output calculations based on the information provided.

4. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

• A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
• B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
• C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
• D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

5. The healthcare provider is reviewing theories of illness. The germ theory, which states that microscopic organisms such as bacteria and viruses are responsible for specific disease conditions, is a basic belief of which theory of illness?

• A. Holistic
• B. Biomedical
• C. Naturalistic
• D. Magicoreligious

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Biomedical. Among the biomedical explanations for disease is the germ theory, which states that microscopic organisms such as bacteria and viruses are responsible for specific disease conditions. The naturalistic or holistic perspective holds that the forces of nature must be kept in natural balance. The magicoreligious perspective holds that supernatural forces dominate and cause illness or health. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the germ theory explanation provided in the question.

Similar Questions