a nurse is performing cpr on a client when a co worker brings an automated external deibrillator aed the nurse prepares to apply the patches to the c
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. A client with an enlarged prostate is having trouble starting his flow of urine when using the bathroom. Another name for this condition is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urinary hesitancy occurs when a client has difficulty starting a flow of urine while using the bathroom. Hesitancy may be due to physiological factors, such as obstruction from an enlarged prostate, or due to psychological factors, such as anxiety or embarrassment. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully, and urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate.

3. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

4. A client has fallen asleep in his bed in the hospital. His heart rate is 65 bpm, his muscles are relaxed, and he is difficult to arouse. Which stage of the sleep cycle is this client experiencing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in this scenario is experiencing stage 3 of the sleep cycle. In stage 3, the individual has moved into deeper stages of sleep, making it difficult to arouse. Characteristics of stage 3 include relaxed muscles, a decrease in vital signs, and being very still. Stage 3 is a phase of non-REM sleep where the client progresses towards REM sleep and vivid dreams. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stage 1 is characterized by light sleep, stage 2 is a slightly deeper sleep with sleep spindles and K-complexes, and stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep with the slowest brain waves.

5. The abbreviation pc is defined as ________________.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'after the meal.' In medical terminology, 'pc' is an abbreviation for 'post cibum,' which means 'after eating' or 'after the meal.' This term is used to indicate when a medication should be taken concerning meals. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. 'Before the meal' (A) is typically abbreviated as 'ac,' 'with the meal' (B) is abbreviated as 'pc,' and 'post corpi' (D) is not a valid medical abbreviation or term.

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