Nursing Elites

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. While caring for Mr. Charles Y., you see a notation on the nursing care plan that states, 'remind the patient to use the incentive spirometer tid.' This patient will be reminded at which of the following times?

• A. 10:00 AM
• B. 10 am and 2 pm
• C. 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm
• D. 10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abbreviation 'tid' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day. In this case, the patient should be reminded to use the incentive spirometer at 10 am, 2 pm, and 6 pm. Option A, '10 am,' is too infrequent for tid dosing. Option B, '10 am and 2 pm,' is missing the third reminder at 6 pm. Option D, '10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm,' includes an additional time that is not part of the standard tid dosing schedule.

3. A client is being assisted with ambulation in the hallway using a gait belt when they become dizzy and start to faint. What is the first action the nurse should take?

• A. Stand behind the client and prepare to catch them if they fall
• B. Assist the client to sit in the nearest chair or slide down along a wall
• C. Grasp the client under the arms and pull them upward
• D. Call for help from nearby staff

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a client becomes dizzy and starts to faint while being assisted with ambulation, the nurse's first action should be to assist the client into a sitting position to prevent or reduce the impact of a fall. This can be done by guiding the client to sit in the nearest chair or sliding down along a wall for support. Option A is incorrect because standing behind the client may not prevent a fall and could potentially lead to injury. Option C is incorrect as pulling the client upward may worsen the situation. Option D, calling for help, is not the first action to take when the client is at risk of falling.

4. A patient is having difficulty understanding how to properly run her glucose meter. Which of the following teaching methods would best help the patient understand how to use her instrument correctly?

• A. Give the patient an instruction booklet and encourage her to call the office if she has questions.
• B. Tell the patient to ask a healthcare provider to demonstrate how to use the instrument.
• C. Have the patient watch a video demonstrating the use of the instrument.
• D. Demonstrate the proper use of the instrument and then have the patient perform the process while still in the office.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: By using a demonstration and performance method of patient education, the patient is offered a chance to perform a task and have learning assessed while still in the office. This ensures that any questions that the patient has can be answered immediately, and any performance issues observed by the medical assistant can also be corrected promptly. Choice A is not as effective as providing a demonstration in person, as it may not address the patient's specific learning needs or allow for immediate feedback. Choice B suggests asking a healthcare provider to demonstrate, which is similar to the correct answer but may not always be readily available in the office. Choice C, watching a video, lacks the interactive component and immediate feedback that a live demonstration provides, making it less effective in this scenario.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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