Nursing Elites

1. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

2. A client with an enlarged prostate is having trouble starting his flow of urine when using the bathroom. Another name for this condition is:

• A. Hesitancy
• B. Oliguria
• C. Retention
• D. Urgency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Urinary hesitancy occurs when a client has difficulty starting a flow of urine while using the bathroom. Hesitancy may be due to physiological factors, such as obstruction from an enlarged prostate, or due to psychological factors, such as anxiety or embarrassment. Oliguria refers to decreased urine output, retention is the inability to empty the bladder fully, and urgency is the sudden and strong need to urinate.

3. A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from?

• A. Menorrhagia
• B. Grave's Disease
• C. Menopause
• D. Infertility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Luteinizing hormone (LH) is released by the pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation. One of the common reasons for monitoring LH levels is infertility. In women with infertility, LH levels are monitored to time intercourse accurately to maximize the chances of conception. Menorrhagia (choice A) is characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding and is not directly related to LH levels. Grave's Disease (choice B) is an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland and is not typically monitored by LH levels. Menopause (choice C) is a natural process marking the end of a woman's reproductive years and is not a condition where LH monitoring for infertility is common.

4. How does the procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differ from an adult?

• A. Pulse rates are taken on infants using a different method.
• B. The apical pulse method is used on infants.
• C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer.
• D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The apical pulse method is used on infants. This method involves placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, and counting the beats for a full minute. It is a preferred method for infants due to their small size and the difficulty in palpating peripheral pulses accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as pulse rates are indeed taken on infants, albeit using a different method. Choice C is incorrect as a sphygmomanometer is typically used for measuring blood pressure, not pulse rates. Choice D is incorrect as pulse rates on infants are usually taken apically in the fifth intercostal space, not the third.

5. A 2-year-old child has been brought to the clinic for a well-child checkup. What is the best way for the nurse to begin the assessment?

• A. Ask the parent to place the child on the examining table.
• B. Have the parent remove all of the child's clothing before the examination.
• C. Allow the child to keep a security object such as a toy or blanket during the examination.
• D. Initially focus the interactions on the child, essentially ignoring the parent until the child's trust has been obtained.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best place to examine the toddler is on the parent's lap. Toddlers understand symbols; therefore, a security object is helpful. Initially, the focus is more on the parent, which allows the child to adjust gradually and to become familiar with you. A 2-year-old child does not like to take off his or her clothes. Therefore, ask the parent to undress one body part at a time.

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