osha has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them these regulation

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions With Rationale

1. OSHA has very strict standards for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or patients who have been exposed to them. These regulations include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Respiratory protection must be provided to all employees who might be exposed.
B. Training on respiratory protection must be provided.
C. Employers must provide personal protective equipment to all employees.
D. All ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: OSHA regulations for hospital employees dealing with hazardous materials or exposed patients require respiratory protection for potentially exposed employees, training on respiratory protection, and the provision of personal protective equipment. However, not all ED personnel are required to be trained in decontamination procedures. While all ED staff should have a basic understanding of hazmat situations, specific training in decontamination procedures is only necessary for those who will be directly involved in the decontamination process. Therefore, the correct answer is that all ED personnel must be trained in decontamination procedures, as this is not a mandatory requirement under OSHA regulations for hospital employees who may encounter hazardous materials or exposed patients.

2. A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but the diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability.

A. A lumbar puncture takes a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the back, which will be analyzed by the lab.
B. The physician will insert a needle at the level of L4-L5 in the spinal cord.
C. The client should lie flat on their back for a specific period following the procedure.
D. The risks of the procedure include headache, back pain, and infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis to investigate various conditions affecting the client. During the procedure, the client is typically positioned on their side or sitting leaning over a table with their back rounded. The physician inserts a needle into the back around the L4-L5 vertebrae to collect the sample. Option A is incorrect because a lumbar puncture does not draw blood but instead collects cerebrospinal fluid. Option C is incorrect as the client should not necessarily lie flat for 24 hours post-procedure. Option D is incorrect as the common risks of a lumbar puncture include headache, back pain, and potential infection, not nausea, rash, or hypotension.

3. What preparation is necessary for a colposcopy procedure?

A. NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedure.
B. D/C all hypertension medications for two days prior to the procedure.
C. Take three Dulcolax tablets and two containers of Miralax the day before to clear out the lower GI system.
D. None of the above prep is necessary for this type of procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A colposcopy procedure is performed to examine the vagina and cervix. The only preparation required is washing the external genitals with soap and water on the morning of the procedure. Choices A, B, and C suggest unnecessary preparations that are not relevant to a colposcopy. NPO for 8-12 hours, discontinuing hypertension medications, and using laxatives are not part of the standard preparation for a colposcopy.

4. A client has entered disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) after becoming extremely ill after surgery. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see with this client?

A. Elevated fibrinogen level
B. Prolonged PT
C. Elevated platelet count
D. Depressed d-dimer level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a client experiences widespread clotting throughout the body, leading to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. A prolonged prothrombin time (PT) is a common finding in DIC. The PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and reflects how quickly blood can clot. In DIC, the consumption of clotting factors results in a prolonged PT, indicating impaired clotting ability. Elevated fibrinogen levels (Choice A) are typically seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot breakdown. Elevated platelet count (Choice C) is not a typical finding in DIC as platelets are consumed during the widespread clotting. A depressed d-dimer level (Choice D) is also not expected in DIC as d-dimer levels are elevated due to the breakdown of fibrin clots. Therefore, the correct answer is a prolonged PT.

5. What does the 'B' in the SBAR acronym stand for?

A. Background
B. Basic
C. Beginning
D. Break

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 'B' in the SBAR acronym stands for Background. SBAR is a standardized communication tool used in healthcare to effectively communicate critical information. In this context, 'Background' refers to providing relevant information about the patient's history, current status, and any other pertinent details. This information helps ensure clear and concise communication between healthcare providers, enhancing patient care. Choice B, 'Basic,' is incorrect as the 'B' specifically emphasizes the detailed background information. Choices C and D, 'Beginning' and 'Break,' are not accurate in the context of the SBAR communication tool.