a client is crying after undergoing dilation and curettage after an early miscarriage spontaneous abortion which response would the nurse give
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions

1. After undergoing dilation and curettage following an early miscarriage, a client is crying. Which response would the nurse give?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's grief without judgment and provides validation. Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests replacing the lost child with other children, which is insensitive and dismissive of the client's current loss. Choice C minimizes the client's feelings by focusing on the ability to get pregnant rather than addressing the emotional impact of the miscarriage. Choice D is dismissive and patronizing, suggesting that the miscarriage was for the best, which can be hurtful and diminish the client's grief.

2. Which of the following is an appropriate tension-reduction intervention for a patient who may be escalating toward aggressive behavior?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the above interventions are appropriate tension-reduction techniques for a patient in the ICU. When a patient is escalating toward aggressive behavior, it is crucial to have a range of strategies to help de-escalate the situation. Asking to speak to someone can provide emotional support and an outlet for communication. Asking to be alone can help the patient have space and time to calm down. Listening to music can be soothing and distracting. These interventions, along with additional ones like walking the hallway, watching television, writing in a journal, or requesting a PRN medication, can be helpful. It is essential to involve the patient in developing the care plan to identify triggers and effective tension-reduction techniques. Patients in escalation may not always recognize the need for intervention, so staff must be observant and offer personalized techniques to address the situation effectively.

3. To reduce the risk of venous thrombosis, which measure should the nurse instruct the client in to promote venous return?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent venous thrombus formation, promoting venous return is crucial. Encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway helps prevent venous stasis and reduces the risk of thrombus formation in immobile clients. Option A (using the incentive spirometer) aids in alveolar expansion to prevent atelectasis, not specifically venous thrombosis. Option B (elevating the head of the bed during meals) reduces the risk of aspiration, not venous thrombosis. Option C (using aseptic technique for dressing changes) reduces the risk of postoperative infection, not specifically venous thrombosis. Therefore, among the options provided, encouraging frequent ambulation in the hallway is the most effective measure to prevent venous thrombosis.

4. A client is having difficulty applying for a job due to panic and anxiety. A nurse is helping by pretending to be the job supervisor while the client practices answering questions during an imaginary interview. This technique is an example of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Role-playing is the correct answer. It involves practicing appropriate behaviors during imaginary scenarios that simulate real-life situations. In this scenario, the nurse is helping the client prepare for a job interview by acting as the job supervisor. Role-playing allows the client to practice and develop strategies to cope with anxiety and panic during the actual interview. Reinforcement (Choice A) involves providing consequences to strengthen a behavior. Presenting reality (Choice B) involves helping the client differentiate between real and unreal experiences. Summarizing (Choice D) involves condensing information. In this context, role-playing is the most appropriate technique to address the client's anxiety and panic related to job interviews.

5. The nurse plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Volume to administer = (Ordered Dose � Volume on hand) / Dose on hand). In this case, it would be (4 mg � 1 mL) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it miscalculates the dosage. Choice C (1.25 mL) and Choice D (2.0 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the ordered dose and available concentration. The correct answer, 0.8 mL, is derived from accurate dosage calculation and aligns with the formula for IV medication administration, ensuring the safe and effective delivery of the medication to the client.

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