NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions
1. After undergoing dilation and curettage following an early miscarriage, a client is crying. Which response would the nurse give?
- A. ''This must be a very difficult experience for you to deal with.''
- B. 'You'll have other children to take the place of the child you lost.''
- C. 'Of course you're sad now, but at least you know you can get pregnant.''
- D. 'I know how you feel, but when a woman miscarries, it's usually for the best.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's grief without judgment and provides validation. Choice B is inappropriate as it suggests replacing the lost child with other children, which is insensitive and dismissive of the client's current loss. Choice C minimizes the client's feelings by focusing on the ability to get pregnant rather than addressing the emotional impact of the miscarriage. Choice D is dismissive and patronizing, suggesting that the miscarriage was for the best, which can be hurtful and diminish the client's grief.
2. A seriously ill female client tells the nurse, 'I am so tired and in so much pain! Please help me to die.' Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
- A. Administer the prescribed maximum dose of pain medication.
- B. Talk with the client about her feelings related to her own death.
- C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider about initiating antidepressant therapy.
- D. Refer the client to the ethics committee of her local healthcare facility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should first assess the client's feelings about her death and determine the extent to which this statement expresses her true feelings. The client may need additional pain management, but further assessment is needed before implementing option A. Option B is the correct response as it focuses on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option C is premature as initiating antidepressant therapy without a thorough assessment may not be appropriate. Option D is not the best course of action at this point; involving the ethics committee should be considered only after a comprehensive evaluation and discussion with the client.
3. A 20-year-old young adult has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the adult in?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The young adult, at 20 years old, is in the stage of Intimacy vs. Isolation according to Erikson's psychosocial theory. This stage typically occurs during young adulthood, between the ages of approximately 19 and 40. The primary conflict in this stage revolves around the development of intimate, loving relationships with others. This stage focuses on establishing close bonds and connections with others, seeking emotional closeness and commitment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Trust vs. mistrust is the stage that occurs in infancy, Initiative vs. guilt is in early childhood, and Autonomy vs. shame is in toddlerhood. These stages each represent different developmental challenges and conflicts that individuals face at various points in their lives.
4. Which dysfunction of the reproductive system is associated with anorexia nervosa in females?
- A. Galactorrhea
- B. Gynecomastia
- C. Amenorrhea
- D. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amenorrhea (cessation of menses) is associated with anorexia nervosa in females due to endocrine imbalances resulting from depleted fat stores. Galactorrhea is a milky discharge from the nipples unrelated to normal breast milk production. Gynecomastia is swelling of breast tissue in males. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder occurs about 1 week before menses and includes mood swings, depression, fatigue, bloating, overeating, and difficulty focusing, resolving when menstruation starts. In the context of anorexia nervosa, the primary concern is the disruption of the menstrual cycle due to low body weight, leading to amenorrhea.
5. According to the CDC, which of the following age groups is most likely to meet the criteria for major depression?
- A. 18-24 years
- B. 25-34 years
- C. 35-44 years
- D. 45-64 years
Correct answer: D
Rationale: According to the CDC, individuals aged 45-64 years are most likely to meet the criteria for major depression. While patients in the 18-24 year age group are more likely to report symptoms of depression, when it comes to major depression, the prevalence is higher in the 45-64 year age group. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the CDC indicates that major depression is most prevalent in the 45-64 year age group.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access