NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions
1. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
- B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
- C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
- D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.
2. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?
- A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
- B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
- C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
- D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.
3. Which factor is most critical for a single mother of 2 children who recently lost her job and does not know what to do?
- A. Developmental history of children
- B. Available situational supports
- C. Underlying unconscious conflict
- D. Willingness to restructure lifestyle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a crisis intervention, the priority is to identify available situational supports, such as family, friends, community resources, and social services, that can help the single mother and her children during this difficult time. Understanding the developmental history of the children may be important to assess their needs, but it is not the most critical factor in this immediate crisis. Exploring underlying unconscious conflicts is more suited for long-term therapy rather than crisis intervention. While the willingness to restructure lifestyle may eventually be necessary, the immediate focus should be on finding support systems to address the current crisis.
4. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
- A. Bulimia
- B. Anorexia
- C. Orthorexia
- D. Binge eating disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.
5. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the healthcare provider as soon as possible?
- A. Daily black, sticky stool
- B. Daily dark brown stool
- C. Firm brown stool every other day
- D. Soft light brown stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Daily black, sticky stool.' Black sticky stool (melena) is indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious condition that requires immediate attention from the healthcare provider. Options B and D, 'Daily dark brown stool' and 'Soft light brown stool twice a day,' respectively, represent variations of normal stool characteristics and do not raise immediate concerns about the client's health. Option C, 'Firm brown stool every other day,' suggests constipation, which is of lesser concern and can be managed with interventions.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access