Nursing Elites

1. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.

2. A client undergoing presurgical testing before a total abdominal hysterectomy says to the nurse, 'After I have this surgery I know my husband will never come near me again.' Which response would the nurse give?

• A. You're underestimating how your husband will respond to your surgery.
• B. You're concerned about the effect on your sexual relations.
• C. You're worried that the surgery will change how others see you.
• D. You're concerned about how your husband will respond to your surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's expressed concern about her husband's reaction to the surgery, encouraging further discussion without imposing the nurse's assumptions. Choice A reframes the client's concern to focus on the husband's response, aligning more closely with the client's stated worry. Choice B makes an assumption about the client's concerns regarding sexual relations, which may not be the primary focus of her statement. Choice C shifts the attention to how others perceive the client, deviating from the client's specific reference to her husband's reaction, thus not addressing the client's main concern.

3. What is a priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of the severely mentally ill client?

• A. Re-orientation to reality
• B. Elimination of symptoms
• C. Protection from harm to self or others
• D. Return to independent functioning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of severely mentally ill clients is to ensure protection from harm to self or others. Involuntary hospitalization is often necessary for individuals who are deemed dangerous to themselves or others or who are considered gravely disabled. Re-orientation to reality, elimination of symptoms, and return to independent functioning are important aspects of mental health care but are not the primary goals of involuntary hospitalization. The main focus during involuntary hospitalization is to address safety concerns and prevent harm.

4. According to psychodynamic theory, what purpose do delusions serve?

• A. Delusions are a defense against anxiety caused by real or imagined threats.
• B. Magical thinking is a delusion that ensures desirable outcomes.
• C. Delusions are a method of dealing with and interpreting external stimuli.
• D. Subconsciously, delusions are a way to safely express anger and hostility.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to psychodynamic theory, delusions serve as a defense mechanism against anxiety triggered by real or perceived threats. Delusions are the individual's unconscious way of protecting themselves from overwhelming feelings of anxiety. Magical thinking, on the other hand, involves believing that one's thoughts can influence external events. This is not the same as delusions. Delusions are not a way of interpreting external stimuli but rather a defense mechanism. Expressing anger and hostility is typically associated with defense mechanisms like displacement or projection, not delusions.

5. What approach should the nurse use when a manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors asks the nurse to talk while the nurse is orienting a new client to the unit?

• A. Suggest that the client requesting attention speak with another staff member.
• B. Leave the new client, saying, 'I'll talk with the other client until things calm down.'
• C. Introduce the two clients and suggest that the client join them on a tour of the facility.
• D. Say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should respond to the manipulative client who uses acting-out behaviors by setting realistic limits on behavior without rejecting the client. Therefore, the correct approach is to say to the interrupting client, 'I'll be back to talk with you after I orient this new client.' This response acknowledges the client's request while prioritizing the needs of the new client and setting appropriate boundaries. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Suggesting that the client speak with another staff member would be a rejection of the client, not the behavior. Leaving the new client to attend to the manipulative client would encourage further manipulation and disrupt the orientation process for the new client. Introducing the two clients and suggesting a tour is inconsistent with setting limits and does not address the manipulative behavior being displayed.

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