NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
- B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect upward.
- C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting a catheter in a female client who has not voided for 8 hours, it is possible that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the initial catheter in place can help locate the meatus for the second attempt. The client should have at least 240 mL of urine output after 8 hours, indicating the need for catheterization. Clamping the catheter (Option A) does not address the issue of incorrect catheter placement. Pulling the catheter back and redirecting it (Option B) is not effective unless the catheter is completely removed, requiring a new catheter. There is no indication of a urinary tract obstruction to notify the healthcare provider (Option D) as the catheter could be inserted easily.
2. Under what patient conditions or situations are restraints sometimes used?
- A. As punishment when the patient is uncontrollable
- B. To prevent the patient from pulling their IV out
- C. When a patient is a danger to self and others
- D. Both B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Restraints are sometimes used to prevent a patient from pulling out their IV or another life-saving tube and when the person poses a serious danger to themselves and/or others. Restraints are never used as a form of punishment. Choice A is incorrect because restraints are not utilized for punishment but for patient safety and care. Choice B and C are correct because they reflect the appropriate and necessary situations where restraints may be used in healthcare settings.
3. Which reaction toward the physical symptom would the nurse observe in a client with conversion disorder?
- A. Anger
- B. Apathy
- C. Anxiety
- D. Agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In conversion disorder, the nurse would observe apathy toward the physical symptom. The development of the symptom serves as an unconscious method of reducing anxiety. The symptom is accepted passively, known as 'la belle indiff�rence.' There is no anger observed as symptoms are passively accepted. Similarly, there is no direct anxiety related to the physical symptom, as the conflict is resolved through the symptom development. While many individuals might experience agitation and seek to identify the cause of physical symptoms, in conversion disorder, there is an unusual calmness or indifference towards the physical manifestation, indicating apathy rather than other emotional responses.
4. After a client has a spontaneous abortion at 12 weeks' gestation, the nurse notes that both she and her partner are visibly upset and crying. Which statement would be a therapeutic response?
- A. 'I'll be here if you want to talk.''
- B. 'Try to relax"?it'll speed up the healing process.''
- C. 'With any luck, you'll get pregnant again soon.''
- D. 'It's best that this happened early rather than having the baby die after it was born.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A therapeutic response in this situation is to offer support and empathy. Saying, 'I'll be here if you want to talk' gives the client and her partner the opportunity to express their emotions and seek comfort. It acknowledges their distress and assures them of the nurse's availability. Choice B, advising to relax to speed up the healing process, dismisses their current emotions and may hinder open communication. Choice C, suggesting getting pregnant again soon, minimizes their grief over the loss and may not be what the couple needs to hear at that moment. Choice D, stating it's best that the miscarriage happened early, is insensitive as it invalidates the couple's feelings of loss and grief. Grieving is a natural process, and the timing of the loss does not diminish its significance.
5. Which parental statement would the nurse recognize as the appropriate application of time-out when disciplining a 4-year-old?
- A. I send my child to their bedroom for misbehaving.
- B. We limit time-out to 4 minutes per incident.
- C. Putting my child in a dark closet for time-out is very effective.
- D. I explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining my child.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to explain the reason for the time-out before and after disciplining the child. This approach reinforces the child's association of the time-out with the undesirable behavior, helping the child learn to control those behaviors. Sending a child to their bedroom may lead to negative associations with bedtime or be ineffective if the child enjoys spending time in their bedroom. Time-out should ideally be limited to 1 minute per year of age, so a time-out for a 4-year-old should be limited to 4 minutes. Placing a child in a dark closet can create fear and damage the child's trust in their parents as a source of safety, making it an inappropriate and harmful approach. Even if this method seems effective in the short term, the potential long-term consequences outweigh any immediate benefits.
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