Nursing Elites

1. What does an anti-kickback statute prevent?

• A. It prevents healthcare workers from providing food or hosting parties to celebrate special occasions at work.
• B. It promotes thorough and complete documentation when a client becomes injured.
• C. It forbids giving or accepting gifts to promote or provide referrals for certain services.
• D. It prevents physicians from ordering treatments that may require nursing care beyond the usual amount.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An anti-kickback statute aims to prevent healthcare providers, clients, consultants, or related organizations from giving or accepting gifts to reward others for referrals of certain services. Choice A is incorrect because providing food or hosting parties at work is not the primary focus of anti-kickback statutes. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to documentation practices rather than gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the scope of physician orders and nursing care, not gift exchanges for referrals. The correct answer, as stated, aligns with the purpose of anti-kickback statutes to prevent improper incentives in healthcare relationships.

2. A nurse with five years of experience working in a hospital unit is promoted as a mentor and preceptor to a new nursing staff. This is an example of:

• A. Collegiality
• B. Competence
• C. Advocacy
• D. Integration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Collegiality is the action of forming relationships and supporting others through work experiences. In this scenario, the nurse being promoted as a mentor and preceptor exemplifies collegiality by fostering an encouraging educational relationship with the new nursing staff. The nurse demonstrates appropriate nursing care, teaches skills, and supports the professional growth of others. Choice B, 'Competence,' refers to having the necessary skills and knowledge, but in this context, the focus is on the supportive and educational role of the nurse. Choice C, 'Advocacy,' involves speaking up for patients' rights and needs, which is not directly demonstrated in the scenario. Choice D, 'Integration,' does not directly relate to the situation described, where the emphasis is on mentoring and guiding new staff.

3. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others. Which medication should a nurse expect a physician to order to address this type of symptom?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol) to address the negative symptom
• B. Clonazepam (Klonopin) to address the positive symptom
• C. Risperidone (Risperdal) to address the positive symptom
• D. Clozapine (Clozaril) to address the negative symptom

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct medication to address the symptom described, where the client is slow to respond and appears to be listening to unseen others, is Risperidone (Risperdal). Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that is commonly used to manage positive symptoms of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms can include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. Haloperidol (Haldol) and Clozapine (Clozaril) are typically used for addressing negative symptoms, such as lack of motivation or social withdrawal. Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a benzodiazepine primarily used for anxiety disorders and seizures, not for addressing symptoms of schizophrenia.

4. You are on the unit and overhear another nurse talking on the phone to a patient's friend who wants to see her patient who is comatose and on a ventilator. Since you cared for that patient yesterday, you know that the patient's significant other, who is also the designated healthcare surrogate (HCS) and has power of attorney (POA), has expressly stated that he wants this person on the list for restricted visitors. The nurse whispers that she'll call him to visit as soon as the significant other has gone home. What should your first response be?

• A. Inform the significant other
• B. Report the nurse to the nurse manager
• C. Speak with the nurse directly in private
• D. Call the visitor and tell him he can't visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Speaking with the nurse directly and privately is the most constructive manner in which to handle this situation and advocate for the significant other's wishes. Doing so will open communication with a peer and build the relationship, instead of alienating the other nurse by taking action that does not involve her and will cast her in a negative light with others. It is essential to express your concerns regarding honoring the significant other's requests and rights regarding the limitation of visitors. Option A is incorrect because the significant other is not the one trying to visit, and it is more appropriate to address the nurse directly first. Option B is not the best initial response as it may escalate the situation without giving the nurse a chance to correct the issue. Option D is incorrect as it does not address the issue at its source and may create further conflict without resolving the underlying problem.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who had back surgery. All of the following indicate that the client is ready for discharge EXCEPT:

• A. The client still has sutures at the incision site
• B. The client is able to take a shower
• C. The client must still use an ice pack at the wound site
• D. The client has a temperature of 100.8�F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When determining if a client is ready for discharge after back surgery, it is essential to ensure that there are no signs of complications or emerging issues. A postoperative temperature of 100.8�F may indicate a developing infection, and the client should not be discharged until this is further evaluated by the physician. Choices A, B, and C are indicators that the client is progressing well and ready for discharge, as having sutures, being able to shower, and using an ice pack are typically expected postoperative activities without indicating a need for further hospitalization.

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