Nursing Elites

1. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is not correct?

• A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
• B. "Strawberry tongue"? is a characteristic sign.
• C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
• D. The pharynx is red and swollen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Petechiae on the soft palate are not a typical finding in scarlet fever. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria, often presenting with a strawberry tongue, red and swollen pharynx, and a sandpaper-like rash. The presence of petechiae on the soft palate is more commonly associated with conditions like rubella rather than scarlet fever. Therefore, this description is not correct in the context of scarlet fever.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

• A. Yersinia pestis
• B. Helicobacter pylori
• C. Vibrio cholerae
• D. Haemophilus aegyptius

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius (Hae) is a causative agent of acute and often purulent conjunctivitis, more commonly known as pink eye. Yersinia pestis, Helicobacter pylori, and Vibrio cholerae are not associated with conjunctivitis. Yersinia pestis causes the plague, Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric ulcers, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.

3. A patient in the emergency room has a fractured left elbow and presents with an unequal radial pulse, swelling, and numbness in the left hand after waiting for 5 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Place the patient in a supine position
• B. Ask the patient to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• C. Wrap the fractured area with a snug dressing
• D. Start an IV in the other arm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an IV in the other arm. In this scenario, the patient is showing signs of Acute Compartment Syndrome, a serious condition that occurs due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to decreased blood flow and potential tissue damage. Starting an IV is crucial as the patient may require emergency surgery, such as a fasciotomy, to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Placing the patient in a supine position, asking about pain levels, or wrapping the fractured area, though important, are not the priority interventions in this critical situation where immediate medical intervention is necessary to prevent irreversible damage or loss of limb.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?

• A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
• B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
• C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
• D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?

• A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
• B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
• C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
• D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.

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