NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
- A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
- C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
- D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Correct answer: Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.
2. A patient is on bedrest 24 hours after a hip fracture. Which regular assessment or intervention is essential for detecting or preventing the complication of Fat Embolism Syndrome?
- A. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip as tolerated.
- B. Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
- C. Assess the pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes.
- D. Administer a stool softener as ordered.
Correct answer: Assess the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness.
Rationale: In detecting or preventing Fat Embolism Syndrome (FES), assessing the patient's mental status for drowsiness or sleepiness is crucial. Decreased level of consciousness is an early sign of FES due to decreased oxygen levels. Performing passive, light range-of-motion exercises on the hip may not directly relate to FES. Assessing pedal pulse and capillary refill in the toes is essential for assessing circulation but not specific to detecting FES. Administering a stool softener, while important for preventing constipation in immobilized patients, is not directly related to detecting or preventing FES.
3. Which of the following medications taken by the patient is least likely to cause urine discoloration?
- A. Sulfasalazine
- B. Levodopa
- C. Phenolphthalein
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: Aspirin
Rationale: The correct answer is Aspirin. Aspirin is not known to cause urine discoloration. Sulfasalazine is associated with causing orange-yellow discoloration of urine. Levodopa can cause darkening of urine to a brown or black color. Phenolphthalein has been linked to pink or red discoloration of urine. Therefore, among the options provided, Aspirin is the medication least likely to cause urine discoloration.
4. Which intervention should the nurse use for a client who hallucinates, yells, and curses throughout the day?
- A. Ignore the client's behavior if the client is not harming anyone.
- B. Isolate the client until the behavior decreases or stops.
- C. Explain how the behavior affects other people on the unit.
- D. Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.
Correct answer: D: Seek to understand what the behavior means to the client.
Rationale: When a client experiences hallucinations, yells, and curses, it is essential to seek to understand the underlying meaning of their behavior. All behavior has significance, and understanding the client's perspective can guide appropriate interventions. Ignoring the behavior may exacerbate the situation and isolating the client could lead to increased anxiety and further acting out. Explaining the impact on others is not helpful in this scenario as the client is not intentionally hallucinating; yelling and cursing are responses to the hallucinations.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?
- A. Yersinia pestis
- B. Helicobacter pylori
- C. Vibrio cholerae
- D. Haemophilus aegyptius
Correct answer: Haemophilus aegyptius
Rationale: The correct answer is Haemophilus aegyptius. Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius (Hae) is a causative agent of acute and often purulent conjunctivitis, more commonly known as pink eye. Yersinia pestis, Helicobacter pylori, and Vibrio cholerae are not associated with conjunctivitis. Yersinia pestis causes the plague, Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric ulcers, and Vibrio cholerae causes cholera.
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