Nursing Elites

1. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?

• A. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• B. Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
• C. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
• D. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that Duchenne is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the affected gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If a son receives the X chromosome bearing the gene, he will develop the disease, giving him a 50% chance of being affected. Daughters, on the other hand, are not affected by Duchenne but have a 50% chance of being carriers since they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome is inherited from the father, who cannot be a carrier. Therefore, choice A is accurate. Choice B is incorrect because daughters do not develop the disease, and sons have a 50% chance of developing, not both having a 50% chance. Choice C is incorrect as it does not consider the X-linked inheritance pattern of Duchenne. Choice D is inaccurate as it incorrectly states that only sons have a 25% chance of developing the disorder, omitting the carrier status of daughters.

2. A nurse is providing dismissal instructions for a child who was admitted for rotavirus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.
• B. I will call the physician if he becomes dizzy or overly fussy.
• C. He will need to wash his hands a lot to keep this from spreading.
• D. I'll watch to see when he stops having diarrhea stools.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I'll start giving him his antibiotics as soon as we get home.' Rotavirus is a viral illness, and antibiotics are ineffective for its treatment. The parent's statement indicates a need for further teaching as antibiotics are not appropriate for treating rotavirus. Option B is correct as it demonstrates the parent's understanding of when to contact the physician for concerning symptoms. Option C is a correct statement regarding infection control practices. Option D is also correct as monitoring diarrhea stools is essential to track recovery from rotavirus.

3. A nurse is performing an end-of-shift count of narcotics kept in the locked cabinet. The narcotic log states there should be 26 oxycodone pills left, but there are only 24 in the drawer. What is the first action of the nurse?

• A. Perform the count again
• B. Contact the pharmacy to determine if the narcotic log is incorrect
• C. Check with the last nurse to sign out narcotics from the system
• D. Notify the house supervisor that narcotic medications are missing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take in this situation is to perform the count again. This step is crucial to ensure there was no miscount during the initial check. By verifying the count, the nurse can confirm if there is indeed a discrepancy in the number of oxycodone pills. Contacting the pharmacy, checking with the last nurse, or notifying the house supervisor should only be considered after ensuring the count is accurate. It's important to rule out any human error before escalating the issue to others.

4. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

5. A client with adrenal insufficiency has a potassium level of 7.2 mEq/L. Which of the following signs or symptoms might the client exhibit with this result?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Constipation
• D. A prominent U wave on the ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A client with hyperkalemia may exhibit peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram. This manifestation is an early sign of high potassium levels, but diagnosis should not be based on this aspect alone. Untreated, hyperkalemia can lead to progressively worsening cardiac instability. Muscle spasms (Choice B) are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical sign of hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave on the ECG (Choice D) is associated with hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia.

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