Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing disease prevention education to a 63-year-old woman with a negative family history of breast cancer. The nurse recommends the patient schedule mammograms with which frequency?

• A. Every 5 years
• B. Every 10 years
• C. Every other year
• D. Once a year

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Mammograms, along with breast self-examinations and other routine tests, are key for the early diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer. All major societies (WHO, ACS, USPSTF) recommend a screening mammogram every two years in women of this age at average risk of breast cancer. The recommended frequency may change if there are identified family history and significant risk factors. Choosing 'Once a year' is too frequent and not aligned with current guidelines. Opting for 'Every 5 years' or 'Every 10 years' intervals is not adequate for regular breast cancer screening and may increase the risk of cancer progression. Therefore, 'Every other year' is the most appropriate choice for this patient without a family history of breast cancer.

2. Which of the following situations warrants a measurement for orthostatic hypotension?

• A. A 36-year-old male with a spinal injury
• B. An 86-year-old female with significantly altered mental status
• C. A 58-year-old female with near-syncope
• D. A 41-year-old male with acute deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 58-year-old female with near-syncope. Orthostatic hypotension is a drop in blood pressure of greater than 20 mmHg systolic when moving from a sitting or lying position to standing. Patients at higher risk include those with syncope or near-syncope, symptomatic hypovolemia, and those prone to falls. The other choices are less likely to present with orthostatic hypotension. A spinal injury, altered mental status, and acute deep vein thrombosis are not directly associated with the immediate need for orthostatic hypotension measurement.

3. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

• A. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
• B. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures
• C. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head
• D. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is torticollis, characterized by the shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, limiting the range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. Craniosynostosis is the premature closure of cranial sutures, leading to an abnormal head shape but not necessarily affecting head position. Plagiocephaly is flattening of one side of the head due to external forces or positioning, not muscle shortening. Hydrocephalus presents with an increased head size due to the accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid, not with a fixed head position.

4. Rachel is a 48-year-old mother of three who has been admitted after a drug overdose in a failed suicide attempt. When she regains consciousness, she states that she is ashamed and embarrassed that she tried to take her own life. What is the most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement?

• A. It's a relief your children weren't left without a mother.
• B. What were you thinking?
• C. We're here to help patients who value life.
• D. I know life can be difficult. We're here to help you.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most therapeutic response to Rachel's statement is to provide non-judgmental support and hope. By acknowledging the patient's feelings of shame and embarrassment and offering help and understanding, the nurse can help Rachel maintain her self-esteem. Choice A is not therapeutic as it may unintentionally convey guilt or further shame. Choice B is judgmental and confrontational, which can create a barrier to open communication. Choice C is dismissive and does not address Rachel's emotional state. The correct response (Choice D) acknowledges the patient's struggle, offers support, and conveys empathy, aligning with the nurse's role to treat all patients with respect and dignity in challenging situations.

5. A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?

• A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
• B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
• C. Avoid crossing the legs.
• D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.

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