NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. You are turning your patient in bed and notice that a confused and lethargic patient had loose car keys and lipstick in the bed and had been lying on them. What is this person at risk for due to all three of these factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed?
- A. Falls
- B. Skin breakdown
- C. Apnea
- D. Lack of mobility
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This patient is at great risk for skin breakdown due to the presence of three specific risk factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed. While confusion puts the patient at risk for falls, confusion and lethargy together may lead to a lack of mobility. However, skin breakdown is the primary concern in this scenario as it is associated with all three risk factors - confusion, lethargy, and the presence of items in the bed. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Skin breakdown'.
2. Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patients' charts for:
- A. 10 years
- B. Forever
- C. Until the age of majority
- D. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Forever.' Maintaining patients' charts indefinitely ensures comprehensive legal protection by having all relevant information available in case of litigation or if patient history needs to be referenced in the future. Choice A, '10 years,' may not be sufficient to cover the entire period within which legal issues may arise. Choice C, 'Until the age of majority,' is not ideal as legal matters may extend beyond this age limit. Choice D, '2 years after the patient was last seen in the office,' is inadequate as legal actions can occur beyond this timeframe, necessitating the need for long-term retention of patient charts.
3. Albert is a patient in the hospital who is scheduled for surgery the following morning. After the pre-operative visit from the anesthesia staff member who has obtained surgical consent, Albert asks for an explanation of what type of surgery he is going to have. He states that he's not sure what he just signed. What is your best response?
- A. Don't worry, they'll explain it in the operating room.
- B. It's standard procedure to get the consent; you don't need to worry.
- C. Let me ask the nurse anesthetist to come back and explain it further.
- D. Someone will review it with you prior to surgery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to ensure that the patient fully understands the nature of the surgery they are about to undergo. If the patient expresses uncertainty about the procedure they signed consent for, it indicates a lack of informed consent, which is essential before any surgery. By requesting the nurse anesthetist to return and provide a more detailed explanation, the patient can make an informed decision. Choices A, B, and D do not address the issue of the patient's lack of understanding and the need for informed consent, making them incorrect. Option C is the best course of action to rectify the situation and ensure the patient's understanding and consent are properly obtained.
4. A patient is being seen in the crisis unit reporting that poison letters are coming in the mail. The patient has no history of psychiatric illness. Which group of the following medications would the patient most likely be started on?
- A. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
- B. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta)
- C. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
- D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, where a patient without a history of psychiatric illness is experiencing psychotic symptoms like believing in poison letters, the most suitable medication group to start the patient on would be atypical antipsychotics. Aripiprazole (Abilify) belongs to this group and is preferred due to its efficacy with fewer side effects compared to conventional antipsychotics. Risperidone (Risperdal Consta) is also an atypical antipsychotic but is usually indicated after stabilizing the patient with oral medications. Fluphenazine (Prolixin) is a conventional antipsychotic, which is less favored due to its side effect profile. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an antidepressant and is not the first-line treatment for psychotic symptoms.
5. A 39-year-old woman presents for treatment of excessive vaginal bleeding after giving birth to twins one week ago. Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?
- A. Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss
- B. Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect
- C. Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage
- D. Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis in this situation is 'Fluid Volume Deficit related to post-partum hemorrhage.' Post-partum hemorrhage can lead to excessive bleeding, putting the client at risk of fluid volume deficit due to the loss of blood volume. This diagnosis is most appropriate as it addresses the immediate concern of fluid loss. 'Knowledge Deficit related to post-partum blood loss' (Choice A) is incorrect as the priority in this case is addressing the physical issue of fluid volume deficit rather than knowledge deficit. 'Self-Care Deficit related to post-partum neglect' (Choice B) is not relevant to the situation described. 'Body Image Disturbance related to body changes after delivery' (Choice D) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis in this context where the primary concern is fluid volume deficit due to post-partum hemorrhage.
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