Nursing Elites

1. You are turning your patient in bed and notice that a confused and lethargic patient had loose car keys and lipstick in the bed and had been lying on them. What is this person at risk for due to all three of these factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed?

• A. Falls
• B. Skin breakdown
• C. Apnea
• D. Lack of mobility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: This patient is at great risk for skin breakdown due to the presence of three specific risk factors: confusion, lethargy, and items in the bed. While confusion puts the patient at risk for falls, confusion and lethargy together may lead to a lack of mobility. However, skin breakdown is the primary concern in this scenario as it is associated with all three risk factors - confusion, lethargy, and the presence of items in the bed. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Skin breakdown'.

2. The client is receiving an MAOI. Which foods should the nurse caution the client to avoid?

• A. Pork, spinach, and fresh oysters
• B. Milk, grapes, and meat tenderizers
• C. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate
• D. Leafy green vegetables, fresh apples, and ice cream

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client is receiving a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), they should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Cheese, beer, and products with chocolate are rich in tyramine and can interact with MAOIs, leading to a dangerous rise in blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D do not contain high levels of tyramine and are not typically restricted when taking MAOIs.

3. A new mother has some questions about phenylketonuria (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

• A. A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.
• B. The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid
• C. Mental deficits are often present with PKU
• D. The effects of PKU are reversible

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inherited disorder that increases the levels of phenylalanine (a building block of proteins) in the blood. If PKU is not treated, phenylalanine can build up to harmful levels in the body, causing intellectual disability and other serious health problems. The signs and symptoms of PKU vary from mild to severe. The most severe form of this disorder is known as classic PKU. Infants with classic PKU appear normal until they are a few months old. Without treatment, these children develop a permanent intellectual disability. Seizures, delayed development, behavioral problems, and psychiatric disorders are also common. Untreated individuals may have a musty or mouse-like odor as a side effect of excess phenylalanine in the body. Children with classic PKU tend to have lighter skin and hair than unaffected family members and are also likely to have skin disorders such as eczema. The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life (via Genetic Home Reference).

4. A client is being monitored for decreased tissue perfusion and increased risk of skin breakdown. Which measure best improves tissue perfusion in this client?

• A. Massaging the reddened areas
• B. Performing range of motion exercises
• C. Administering antithrombotics as ordered
• D. Feeding the client a high-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client at risk of impaired skin integrity due to decreased tissue perfusion, improving mobility is crucial to enhance tissue perfusion and prevent skin breakdown. Range of motion exercises are beneficial to increase circulation and prevent complications. Massaging reddened areas may further damage fragile skin. Administering antithrombotics may be necessary for specific conditions but does not directly address tissue perfusion. Feeding a high-carbohydrate diet does not directly improve tissue perfusion in this context.

5. A client must use a non-rebreathing oxygen mask. Which of the following statements is true regarding this type of mask?

• A. A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%.
• B. A client should breathe through his or her mouth when using a non-rebreather.
• C. A non-rebreather offers a reservoir from which the client inhales.
• D. The mask of a non-rebreather should be changed every 3 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A non-rebreather mask is used for supplemental oxygen delivery for clients experiencing breathing difficulties. The non-rebreather mask includes a one-way valve that allows exhaled air to escape, preventing the rebreathing of carbon dioxide. The client inhales oxygenated air from a reservoir bag attached to the mask, providing high-concentration oxygen therapy. A non-rebreather mask can deliver FiO2 levels of up to 90%, making it an effective intervention for clients requiring high oxygen concentrations. Therefore, the statement that 'A non-rebreather can provide an FiO2 of 40%' is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because clients should breathe through their nose and mouth, the mask offers a reservoir for inhaling oxygen, and the mask should be assessed and potentially replaced if soiled or damaged, not routinely changed every 3 hours.

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