NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX PN Questions
1. A 9-year-old boy is told that he must stay in the hospital for at least 2 weeks. The nurse finds him crying and unwilling to talk. What is the priority nursing care at this time?
- A. Assuring him that his illness is not permanent
- B. Distracting him to prevent further embarrassment
- C. Arranging for him to receive tutoring immediately
- D. Providing privacy to allow him to express his feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing care for a 9-year-old child who is crying and unwilling to talk in the hospital is to provide privacy to allow him to express his feelings. Children need an opportunity to express their emotions in private, and talking about their feelings can be therapeutic. Assurances about the illness not being permanent may not be the child's primary concern at this moment. Distracting the child could give the impression that crying is wrong. Arranging tutoring does not address the immediate emotional needs of the child.
2. A toddler is 26 months old and has been recently admitted to the hospital. According to Erikson, which of the following stages is the toddler in?
- A. Trust vs. mistrust
- B. Initiative vs. guilt
- C. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
- D. Intimacy vs. isolation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct stage for a toddler who is 26 months old, according to Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, is Autonomy vs. shame and doubt. This stage occurs between 18 months to 3 years of age. During this stage, children are focused on developing a greater sense of control and independence. Choice A, Trust vs. mistrust, is the first stage occurring from birth to 18 months, where infants learn to trust or mistrust their caregivers based on their care. Choice B, Initiative vs. guilt, is the third stage occurring from 3 to 5 years, where children start to assert themselves more. Choice D, Intimacy vs. isolation, is a stage occurring in adulthood, not relevant to a toddler's development.
3. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?
- A. Olanzapine
- B. Meperidine
- C. Ziprasidone
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.
4. A female nurse is assessing a male patient of Arab descent who is admitted with complaints of severe headaches. It is most important for the nurse to intervene if she takes which action?
- A. The nurse explains the 0 to 10 intensity pain scale.
- B. The nurse asks the patient when the headaches started.
- C. The nurse sits down at the bedside and closes the privacy curtain.
- D. The nurse calls for a male nurse to bring a hospital gown to the room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In some Arab cultures, it is not considered appropriate for a male to be alone with a female who is not his spouse. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to respect the patient's cultural beliefs and privacy by ensuring that a female nurse is not alone with the male patient. Sitting down at the bedside and closing the privacy curtain could potentially lead to a situation where the nurse is alone with the patient, which goes against the patient's cultural norms. The other actions, such as explaining the pain scale, asking about the onset of headaches, and requesting a male nurse to bring a hospital gown, are all appropriate and do not conflict with the patient's cultural beliefs.
5. At a senior citizens meeting, a healthcare professional talks with a client who has Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client during the conversation is most predictive of a potential for impaired skin integrity?
- A. ''I give myself insulin injections in my thighs.''
- B. ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.''
- C. ''Here are my glucose readings that I noted on my calendar.''
- D. ''If I bathe more than once a week, my skin feels too dry.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is when the client states, ''Sometimes when I put my shoes on, I don't know where my toes are.'' This statement indicates peripheral neuropathy, which can lead to a lack of sensation in the lower extremities. When clients are unable to feel pressure or pain in their feet, they are at a high risk for skin impairment, such as cuts, wounds, or ulcers. Option A is not directly related to impaired skin integrity, as self-administering insulin in the thighs does not pose a direct risk to skin integrity. Option C shows good glucose monitoring, which is important but does not directly indicate impaired skin integrity. Option D suggests dry skin due to infrequent bathing, which is more related to general skin care and not as predictive of impaired skin integrity as the statement in Option B.
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