Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?

• A. Dealing with loss of friends
• B. Commitment to parenthood
• C. Setting career goals
• D. Solidification of sense of self

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.

2. A client has just died, and their son states, 'She was the most wonderful mother. There was no one who was a better mother than she was. She was perfect.' Which stage of grief is this son experiencing?

• A. Denial
• B. Anger
• C. Idealization
• D. Shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The son is experiencing the idealization stage of grief. During this stage, individuals tend to idealize the deceased person and remember them in a highly positive light, overlooking any negative aspects. This idealization serves as a coping mechanism to deal with the loss. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as denial involves refusing to accept the reality of the loss. Choice B, Anger, is incorrect as it involves feelings of resentment and frustration. Choice D, Shock, is incorrect as shock is the initial reaction to the loss and is different from idealizing the deceased individual.

3. When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, which action should the nurse do first?

• A. Clamp the nasogastric tube
• B. Confirm placement of the tube
• C. Use a syringe to instill the medications
• D. Turn off the intermittent suction device

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering medications through a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction, the nurse should first turn off the intermittent suction device. This step is crucial to prevent the medications from being immediately suctioned out before they can be absorbed. Clamping the nasogastric tube is not the initial action because it may cause pressure buildup and lead to complications. Confirming the placement of the tube is important but should not be the first step in this scenario. Using a syringe to instill the medications comes after ensuring the suction is turned off to enable proper administration and absorption of the medications.

4. A parent of a young child says, 'I'm so upset! The doctor prescribed an antidepressant!' Which response is best?

• A. Tell me more about what's bothering you.'
• B. Weren't you told about the need for the medication?'
• C. I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.'
• D. 'Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to express empathy and encourage the parent to share more about their concerns. Option A ('Tell me more about what's bothering you.') allows the nurse to show understanding and gather more information to address the parent's distress effectively. Option B ('Weren't you told about the need for the medication?') is confrontational and may make the parent defensive, hindering effective communication. Option C ('I'll notify the healthcare provider about your concerns.') is premature; the nurse should first assess the parent's feelings before deciding on further actions. Option D ('Maybe the medication is for attention deficit disorder.') assumes without clarification, which is not appropriate; the nurse should validate the prescription before suggesting alternative reasons.

5. Which of the following is a typical assessment finding of a 24-year-old female with anorexia nervosa?

• A. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat
• B. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting
• C. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements
• D. Lack of menstruation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lack of menstruation. Amenorrhea, or lack of menstruation, is a common occurrence in individuals with anorexia nervosa. The induced starvation from anorexia can disrupt hormone levels, leading to menstrual irregularities. This hormonal imbalance can result in amenorrhea, which can have long-term consequences such as osteoporosis and infertility. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Weight loss of more than 2% body fat may be a consequence of anorexia but is not a specific assessment finding. Frequent binge-eating episodes followed by induced vomiting are more characteristic of bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa. A history of poor academic performance and mediocre achievements is not a typical assessment finding related to anorexia nervosa symptoms.

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