NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?
- A. Dealing with loss of friends
- B. Commitment to parenthood
- C. Setting career goals
- D. Solidification of sense of self
Correct answer: A
Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.
2. A client diagnosed with sexual dysfunction states, 'Well, I guess my sex life is over.' Which response would the nurse use as a reply?
- A. I'm sorry to hear that.'
- B. 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left.'
- C. 'You are concerned about your sex life?'
- D. 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The response 'You are concerned about your sex life?' explores the meaning of the statement and allows further expression of concern. It shows empathy and encourages the client to elaborate on their feelings. Choice A, 'I'm sorry to hear that,' does not prompt the client to share more about their concerns and may close off communication. Choice B, 'Oh, you have a lot of good years left,' lacks empathy and understanding of the client's emotions, diverting the focus from the client's feelings. Choice D, 'Have you asked your primary health care provider about that?' shifts the responsibility away from the nurse and may not address the client's emotional needs, potentially making them feel dismissed or embarrassed to seek help.
3. An ambulatory client reports edema during the day in his feet and an ankle that disappears while sleeping at night. What is the most appropriate follow-up question for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have you had a recent heart attack?
- B. Do you become short of breath during your normal daily activities?
- C. How many pillows do you use at night to sleep comfortably?
- D. Do you smoke?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is asking about shortness of breath during normal daily activities because these symptoms suggest right-sided heart failure, leading to increased pressure in the systemic venous system. This pressure causes fluid to shift into the interstitial spaces, resulting in edema. In an ambulatory patient, lower extremities are typically affected first due to gravity. By asking about shortness of breath, the nurse can gather information to confirm the nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance and fluid volume excess, both associated with right-sided heart failure. The other choices are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the client's presenting symptoms.
4. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?
- A. Stage 1
- B. Stage 2
- C. Stage 3
- D. Stage 4
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.
5. While explaining an illness to a 10-year-old, what should the nurse keep in mind about cognitive development at this age?
- A. They are able to make simple associations of ideas.
- B. They are able to think logically in organizing facts.
- C. Interpretation of events originates from their own perspective.
- D. Conclusions are based on previous experiences.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is that 10-year-olds are able to think logically in organizing facts. At this age, children are in the concrete operational stage according to Piaget's theory of cognitive development. In this stage, they can understand and organize information logically and can manipulate objects mentally. Choice A is incorrect because simple associations of ideas are more characteristic of earlier developmental stages. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to egocentrism, which is more typical of the preoperational stage. Choice D is incorrect as basing conclusions on previous experiences is a broader concept that applies across different ages and stages of development, rather than being specific to 10-year-olds in the concrete operational stage.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access