NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. Which of the following is an age-related developmental task for a 68-year-old client?
- A. Dealing with loss of friends
- B. Commitment to parenthood
- C. Setting career goals
- D. Solidification of sense of self
Correct answer: A
Rationale: As individuals age, they face various developmental tasks unique to that stage of life. For a 68-year-old client, dealing with the loss of friends becomes a significant aspect of their development. This age group often experiences the passing of peers and friends, leading to feelings of loneliness and the need to adjust to a changing social circle. Commitment to parenthood (Choice B) is more relevant to younger adults in their child-rearing years. Setting career goals (Choice C) is typically associated with early to mid-career stages rather than later in life. Solidification of sense of self (Choice D) is a task that is more commonly associated with earlier adulthood when individuals are establishing their identity. Therefore, the most appropriate developmental task for a 68-year-old client is dealing with the loss of friends.
2. A teenager begins to cry while talking with the nurse about the problem of not being able to make friends. Which is the correct therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Sitting quietly with the client
- B. Telling the client that crying is not helpful
- C. Suggesting that the client play a board game
- D. Recommending how the client can change this situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct therapeutic nursing intervention in this situation is sitting quietly with the client. This approach conveys empathy, acceptance, and a willingness to listen, which can help the teenager feel supported and understood. It is important for the nurse to create a safe space for the client to express their emotions without judgment. Telling the client that crying is not helpful dismisses their feelings and can hinder the therapeutic relationship. Suggesting a board game as a distraction may prevent the client from fully exploring and addressing their emotions about the issue. Recommending how the client can change the situation may be premature at this stage, as the priority is to provide emotional support and establish trust before delving into problem-solving.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best response in this scenario is option A, 'How will this affect your present sexual activity?' This response directly addresses the client's concern and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings. Option B does not directly address the client's worry about the medication's side effect. Options C and D deviate from the client's immediate concern and are not as relevant in this situation.
4. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
- B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
- C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
- D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.
5. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale to perform a neurologic assessment. A comatose client winces and pulls away from a painful stimulus. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Document that the client responds to the painful stimulus.
- B. Observe the client's response to verbal stimulation.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions for 24 hours.
- D. Report decorticate posturing to the health care provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to document that the client responds to the painful stimulus. In this scenario, the client has shown a purposeful response to pain by wincing and pulling away, which should be accurately documented. Verbal stimulation assessment typically follows the assessment of responses to painful stimuli. Placing the client on seizure precautions is not warranted based solely on the observed response to a painful stimulus. Decorticate posturing, which involves abnormal flexion movements, is not demonstrated by the client in this case, making it unnecessary to report to the provider.
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