Nursing Elites

1. When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, what type of reading might this blood pressure cuff produce?

• A. A normal reading
• B. An abnormally low reading
• C. An abnormally high reading
• D. A fluctuating reading

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a blood pressure cuff is too wide for a client's arm, it may produce an abnormally low blood pressure reading. This occurs because the oversized cuff can lead to an underestimation of blood pressure. It is essential to ensure that the cuff fits appropriately to obtain an accurate reading. An abnormally high reading (Choice C) is less likely with an oversized cuff, as it generally leads to lower readings. A normal reading (Choice A) is unlikely due to the inaccuracies caused by the oversized cuff. A fluctuating reading (Choice D) is not a typical result of using a cuff that is too wide; instead, it usually leads to consistently low readings.

2. Which of the following types of antipsychotic medications is most likely to produce extrapyramidal effects?

• A. Atypical antipsychotic drugs
• B. First-generation antipsychotic drugs
• C. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs
• D. Dopamine system stabilizers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is first-generation antipsychotic drugs. These drugs are potent antagonists of D2, D3, and D4 receptors, making them effective in treating target symptoms but also leading to numerous extrapyramidal side effects due to the blockade of D2 receptors. Atypical or second-generation antipsychotic drugs, as mentioned in choice A, are relatively weak D2 blockers, which results in a lower incidence of extrapyramidal side effects. Third-generation antipsychotic drugs, as in choice C, and dopamine system stabilizers, as in choice D, are not typically associated with significant extrapyramidal effects compared to first-generation antipsychotics.

3. One of the complications of complete bed rest and immobility is which of the following?

• A. Plantar flexion
• B. Dorsiflexion
• C. Extension contractures
• D. Adduction contractures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Plantar flexion, or foot drop, is a common complication of complete bed rest and immobility. This condition occurs due to the weakening of muscles that lift the foot, leading to the foot dragging or being unable to clear the ground during walking. Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upwards, which is not a typical complication of immobility. Extension contractures involve the inability to fully extend a joint, while adduction contractures refer to the inability to move a limb away from the body. These types of contractures can also occur with immobility, but they are not specifically associated with foot drop.

4. You are caring for an infant who is just about 12 months old. Which assessment data is normal for the infant at this age?

• A. The infant had doubled their birth weight at twelve months.
• B. The infant had tripled their birth weight at twelve months.
• C. The mother reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight.
• D. The infant had grown � inch since last month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal assessment data for the infant at 12 months of age is that the infant has doubled their birth weight at 12 months of age. The mother's reports that the infant is drinking 60 mLs per kilogram of its body weight and the fact that the infant had grown � inch since last month are not normal assessment data. Infants are fed breast milk or formula every two to four hours with a total daily intake of 80 to 100 mLs per kilogram of body weight. As the neonate grows, they gain five to seven ounces during the first six months and then they double their birth weight during the first year; the head circumference increases a half inch each month for six months and then two tenths of an inch until the infant is one year of age. Similarly, the height or length of the newborn increases an inch a month for the first 6 months and then 1/2 inch a month until the infant is 1 year of age.

5. A nurse is assessing a client's pulse oximetry on the surgical unit. As part of routine interventions, the nurse turns off the exam light over the client's bed. Which of the following best describes the rationale for this intervention?

• A. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values
• B. A bright light in the client's face may cause a low pulse oximetry
• C. External light sources may cause falsely low oximetry values
• D. The client needs a dark and quiet room to recover and maintain proper oxygenation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's pulse oximetry values, the nurse should turn off any extra environmental lights that are unnecessary, including exam lights or over-bed lights. External light sources may cause falsely high oximetry values when the extra light interferes with the sensor of the oximeter, leading to inaccurate readings. Choice B is incorrect because a bright light in the client's face would not directly affect the pulse oximetry values. Choice C is incorrect as external light sources typically cause falsely high, not low, oximetry values. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for turning off the light is to prevent falsely high readings, not solely for the client's comfort.

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