Nursing Elites

1. As a charge nurse, what is your primary responsibility for a 50-year-old blind and deaf patient admitted to your floor?

• A. Inform others about the patient's deficits.
• B. Communicate patient safety concerns to your supervisor.
• C. Provide continuous updates to the patient about the social environment.
• D. Provide a secure environment for the patient.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the charge nurse for a blind and deaf patient is to provide a secure environment. Ensuring patient safety is crucial to prevent medical errors and adverse outcomes. By creating a safe environment, the nurse can protect the patient from harm and promote well-being. Option A is incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring patient safety rather than highlighting deficits. Option B is not the primary responsibility in this scenario, as the immediate concern is the patient's safety. Option C is irrelevant and does not address the patient's primary needs, which are safety and security.

2. A physician asks you to place the patient with his dorsal side facing the exam table. Which of the following accurately describes how the patient is positioned?

• A. The patient is lying prone.
• B. The patient is lying supine.
• C. The patient is lying in the recovery position.
• D. The patient is lying on his stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When the physician asks for the patient to be placed with their dorsal side facing the exam table, it means the patient should be lying on their back. This position is known as the supine position, where the patient's back is on the table, facing up towards the ceiling. Choice A, 'The patient is lying prone,' is incorrect as the prone position is when the patient is lying face down. Choice C, 'The patient is lying in the recovery position,' is incorrect as the recovery position is a lateral position typically used in first aid. Choice D, 'The patient is lying on his stomach,' is incorrect as it describes the prone position, not the supine position as required in this scenario.

3. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36�C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

4. When cleansing the genital area during perineal care, the nurse should _____________.

• A. cleanse the penis with a circular motion starting from the base and moving toward the tip.
• B. replace the foreskin after it has been pushed back to cleanse an uncircumcised penis.
• C. cleanse the rectal area first and then clean the patient's genital area.
• D. use the same area on the washcloth for each washing and rinsing stroke for a female resident.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During perineal care, when cleansing the genital area of an uncircumcised male patient, it is crucial to retract the foreskin to clean the area underneath. This helps in the removal of smegma, a substance that can accumulate and lead to bacterial growth and infection if not cleaned properly. The foreskin should then be replaced back to its original position after cleaning to ensure proper hygiene and prevent any potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific care required for an uncircumcised penis, which involves retracting and replacing the foreskin.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

Similar Questions