NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam
1. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority for a client at risk for falls in a hospital setting?
- A. Keep all of the side rails up
- B. Review prescribed medications
- C. Complete the "get up and go"? test
- D. Place the bed in the lowest position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a client at risk for falls in a hospital setting is to place the bed in the lowest position. This action ensures that the client falls the shortest distance, reducing the risk of injury. Keeping all side rails up (Option A) may lead to a fall with injury, as the client might attempt to get over the rail and fall from a higher distance. Reviewing prescribed medications (Option B) is important as certain medications can increase the risk of falling, but it is not the best answer as it is not applicable to all clients. Completing the "get up and go"? test (Option C) can help assess a client's risk for falling but does not directly prevent injury.
2. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?
- A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
- B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
- C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
- D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.
3. When percussing over the abdomen of an obese patient, the nurse is unable to identify any changes in sound. What would the nurse do next?
- A. Ask the patient to take deep breaths to relax the abdominal musculature.
- B. Consider this finding as normal and proceed with the abdominal assessment.
- C. Increase the amount of strength used when attempting to percuss over the abdomen.
- D. Decrease the amount of strength used when attempting to percuss over the abdomen.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When percussing an obese patient's abdomen, the thickness of their body wall can affect the sound produced. A stronger percussion stroke is needed for obese or very muscular patients. The force of the blow determines the loudness of the note. Asking the patient to take deep breaths, considering the finding as normal, or decreasing the strength used are not appropriate actions in this scenario.
4. A 75-year-old man with a history of hypertension was recently changed to a new antihypertensive drug. He reports feeling dizzy at times. How would the nurse evaluate his blood pressure?
- A. Blood pressure and pulse should be recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
- B. The patient should be directed to walk around the room and his blood pressure assessed after this activity.
- C. Blood pressure and pulse are assessed at the beginning and at the end of the examination.
- D. Blood pressure is taken on the right arm and then 5 minutes later on the left arm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic vital signs should be taken when the person is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive medications, when the person reports fainting or syncope, or when volume depletion is suspected. The blood pressure and pulse readings are recorded in the supine, sitting, and standing positions.
5. The nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child whose growth rate measures below the third percentile for a child his age. He appears significantly younger than his stated age and is chubby with infantile facial features. Which condition does this child likely have?
- A. Acromegaly
- B. Marfan syndrome
- C. Hypopituitary dwarfism
- D. Achondroplastic dwarfism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypopituitary dwarfism is caused by a deficiency in growth hormone in childhood and results in a retardation of growth below the third percentile, delayed puberty, and other problems. The child's appearance fits this description. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a genetic disorder resulting in characteristic deformities; Marfan syndrome is an inherited connective tissue disorder characterized by a tall, thin stature and other features. Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of growth hormone in adulthood which causes overgrowth of bone in the face, head, hands, and feet.
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