Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a 75-year-old patient who has asthma, the nurse notes that the patient assumes a tripod position, leaning forward with arms braced on the chair. How would the nurse interpret these findings?

• A. Interpret that the patient is eager and interested in participating in the interview.
• B. Evaluate the patient for abdominal pain, which may be exacerbated in the sitting position.
• C. Interpret that the patient is having difficulty breathing and assist them to a supine position.
• D. Recognize that a tripod position is often used when a patient is having respiratory difficulties.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assuming a tripod position"?leaning forward with arms braced on chair arms"?occurs with chronic pulmonary diseases like asthma. This position helps improve breathing by allowing better use of respiratory muscles. Option A is incorrect because assuming the tripod position is not related to being eager or interested in participating in an interview. Option B is incorrect as abdominal pain is not typically associated with the tripod position in this context. Option C is incorrect as assisting the patient to a supine position would not address the underlying respiratory difficulty indicated by the tripod position. Therefore, the correct interpretation is to recognize that the patient is likely experiencing respiratory difficulties when assuming the tripod position.

2. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

3. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

4. An adult's blood pressure reads 40/20. You place the patient in a Trendelenberg position before rechecking the blood pressure. What actions will you take to position the patient correctly?

• A. lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed
• B. raise the head of the bed up to about 60 to 75 degrees
• C. raise the head of the bed up to about 75 to 90 degrees
• D. raise the siderails and place the bed in the high position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a Trendelenberg position, used for low blood pressure, the correct action is to lower the head of the bed and raise the foot of the bed. This positioning facilitates the return of blood to the heart and helps increase blood pressure. Option B, raising the head of the bed to 60 to 75 degrees, is incorrect as it is not the Trendelenberg position. Option C, raising the head of the bed to 75 to 90 degrees, is incorrect as it does not align with the Trendelenberg position. Option D, raising the siderails and placing the bed in the high position, is incorrect as it does not address the specific positioning required for the Trendelenberg position.

5. Which brain structure serves as the heat-regulating center?

• A. Hypothalamus
• B. Pituitary Gland
• C. Pons
• D. Medulla Oblongata

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, ensuring it stays within a narrow range. Moreover, the hypothalamus controls various essential bodily functions, such as hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Pituitary Gland primarily produces and releases hormones, the Pons is involved in functions like sleep, respiration, and bladder control, and the Medulla Oblongata controls vital functions like breathing and heart rate, but not body temperature regulation.

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